25 August 2026, Questions & Answers
168 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
168 questions · 0 topics covered · 34 min revision
Start Interactive Quiz →
This page contains 168 current affairs questions with answers from 25 August 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
Use this page for:
- Daily revision
- Prelims preparation
- Quick self-assessment
- Mains answer enrichment
Want to test yourself first? Try the interactive quiz before checking answers.
Take the 25 August 2026 Quiz →25 August 2026, Questions with Answers
168 QsWhich section of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 constitutes the Appropriate Authority?
- A.Section 17✓ Correct Answer
- B.Section 27
- C.Section 28
- D.Rule 18A(3)(iv)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Section 17 of the PC&PNDT Act specifically provides for the composition and appointment of the Appropriate Authority, which has the primary responsibility to enforce the Act and investigate complaints.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court ruling on PC&PNDT Act:
1. The Supreme Court held that police can independently investigate offences under the PC&PNDT Act because they are cognisable.
2. The Appropriate Authority consists of an officer from the Health Department, an eminent woman, and an officer from the Law Department.
3. Section 28 of the Act prohibits a Magistrate from taking cognizance of an offence except through a complaint mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the SC ruled that police cannot independently investigate PC&PNDT offences despite being cognisable. Statement 2 is correct as per Section 17 of the Act. Statement 3 is correct as per Section 28 which creates a 'complete statutory embargo' on taking cognizance except through the specified complaint route.
On what date did the Supreme Court deliver the judgment barring police from independently investigating sex determination cases under the PC&PNDT Act?
- A.August 20, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.August 25, 2026
- C.August 20, 2025
- D.August 25, 2025
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The judgment was delivered on August 20, 2026, as mentioned in the article. The article itself was published on August 25, 2026, which is a common distractor.
If a police station receives information about a violation involving only the PC&PNDT Act (no other criminal offence), what should the police do according to the Supreme Court?
- A.Register an FIR and investigate independently
- B.Record the information and send it to the Appropriate Authority✓ Correct Answer
- C.File a charge sheet directly before the Magistrate
- D.Arrest the accused and produce them before the court
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The SC held that police cannot independently investigate PC&PNDT offences. If only a PC&PNDT violation is disclosed, the police must record the information and forward it to the Appropriate Authority. The police should not investigate or file a charge sheet for the PC&PNDT offence.
Who is the chairman of the joint parliamentary committee examining the 'One Nation, One Election' bills?
- A.Amit Shah
- B.Ram Nath Kovind
- C.P.P. Chaudhary✓ Correct Answer
- D.Narendra Modi
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
P.P. Chaudhary, a BJP MP from Rajasthan, is the chairman of the 31-member joint parliamentary committee examining the Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 and the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024. Ram Nath Kovind headed the earlier high-level panel that recommended simultaneous polls.
Consider the following statements:
1. Simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies were held in India continuously from 1951 to 1967.
2. The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024 was introduced in the Lok Sabha in December 2024.
3. The joint parliamentary committee on the bills is headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: simultaneous elections were held from 1951 to 1967 for four consecutive elections. Statement 2 is correct: the bills were introduced in December 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect: the JPC is headed by P.P. Chaudhary, not Ram Nath Kovind, who headed the earlier high-level panel.
What is the target year mentioned by the JPC chairman for the possible rollout of simultaneous Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections?
- A.2028
- B.2029✓ Correct Answer
- C.2030
- D.2027
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
P.P. Chaudhary stated that if the constitutional amendment is approved by Parliament by 2028, the rollout of 'One Nation, One Election' can begin in 2029, with state elections held alongside the Lok Sabha polls if states voluntarily dissolve their assemblies.
What is the primary constitutional requirement for the passage of the Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill, 2024?
- A.Simple majority in Lok Sabha
- B.Two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament✓ Correct Answer
- C.Approval from all state legislatures
- D.Simple majority in Rajya Sabha only
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As a constitutional amendment bill, the Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill requires a special majority: at least two-thirds of members present and voting in each House, plus a majority of the total membership of that House. This is a higher threshold than ordinary legislation.
Which US government department is responsible for designating foreign groups as 'Foreign Terrorist Organizations'?
- A.US Department of Defense
- B.US Department of State✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Department of Treasury
- D.US Department of Homeland Security
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The US Department of State is responsible for designating Foreign Terrorist Organizations (FTOs) under the Immigration and Nationality Act. The Treasury Department implements financial sanctions but does not make the designation itself.
Consider the following statements regarding the US delisting of Syria and HTS:
1. The US removed Syria from the state sponsor of terrorism list to promote investment and economic stability in Syria.
2. Hay'at Tahrir al-Sham (HTS) was originally known as al-Nusra Front and was the Syrian branch of ISIS.
3. The US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent announced corresponding sanctions relief alongside the delisting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Treasury Secretary Bessent stated the action will foster investment. Statement 2 is incorrect because al-Nusra Front was the Syrian branch of Al-Qaeda, not ISIS. Statement 3 is correct as the Treasury Department announced sanctions relief.
In which year did HTS (formerly al-Nusra Front) break ties with the jihadist group Al-Qaeda?
- A.2011
- B.2014
- C.2016✓ Correct Answer
- D.2024
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that HTS broke ties with Al-Qaeda in 2016. Option D (2024) is the year HTS-led rebels overthrew Bashar al-Assad, which is a common distractor.
What is the primary objective of the US delisting of Syria and HTS as mentioned in the news?
- A.To isolate Syria from global economic systems
- B.To foster investment and promote political and economic stability in Syria✓ Correct Answer
- C.To recognize HTS as a legitimate political party
- D.To impose new sanctions on Syrian leaders
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent stated the action will 'help foster additional investment in Syria to promote political and economic stability.' The delisting removes barriers for private sector investment, not isolation or new sanctions.
Who is the U.S. Trade Representative mentioned in the article as commenting on Canada's auto production?
- A.Robert Lighthizer
- B.Katherine Tai
- C.Jamieson Greer✓ Correct Answer
- D.Wilbur Ross
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly quotes U.S. Trade Representative Jamieson Greer. He is the current USTR under President Trump. The other options are former USTRs or officials not mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Canada-US trade dispute:
1. Canada will announce retaliatory tariffs against the US on August 25, 2026.
2. President Trump threatened to impose 50% tariffs on Canadian vehicles, auto parts, and steel.
3. Ontario Premier Doug Ford threatened to cut off electricity to the US and restrict critical mineral exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the official announcement. Statement 2 is correct: Trump warned of new 50% tariffs on Canadian vehicles, auto parts, and steel. Statement 3 is correct: Ford said 'everything is on the table' including cutting electricity and critical minerals. Hence all three are correct.
What was the value of Canadian goods subject to President Trump's 50% tariffs triggered on August 22, 2026?
- A.$10 billion
- B.$20 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$30 billion
- D.$50 billion
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that Trump's threatened 50% tariffs were triggered on about $20 billion worth of Canadian goods after Canada walked away from negotiations. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary concern expressed by Canadian leaders, including Prime Minister Mark Carney, about US trade demands?
- A.To increase tariffs on Canadian dairy products
- B.To dismantle major Canadian industries including autos, steel, and aluminum✓ Correct Answer
- C.To restrict Canadian immigration to the US
- D.To force Canada to join a US-led military alliance
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Carney stated, 'We learned during the negotiations that the Americans want to destroy our major industries, including autos, steel and aluminium.' This is the core concern. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which government agency issued the notification revising the export policy of wheat from 'prohibited' to 'free'?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Food Corporation of India (FCI)
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the notification was issued by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). DGFT is the apex body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for formulating and implementing export-import policies.
Consider the following statements regarding India's wheat export policy:
1. The export ban on wheat was initially imposed in May 2022 to control rising domestic prices.
2. The ban was completely lifted in August 2026 without any prior partial relaxation.
3. India's wheat production in the 2025-26 crop year stood at a record 120.65 million tonnes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The ban was imposed in May 2022 to control domestic prices. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article mentions that earlier in 2026, a partial allowance of 60 lakh tonnes was permitted before the full ban was lifted. Statement 3 is correct: Production reached a record 120.65 million tonnes in 2025-26.
According to the news, what was the all-India average retail price of wheat on August 24, 2026?
- A.₹31.46 per kg✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹37.30 per kg
- C.₹29.50 per kg
- D.₹34.20 per kg
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the all-India average retail price of wheat stood at ₹31.46 per kg on August 24, 2026. ₹37.30 per kg was the price of wheat flour, not raw wheat. The other options are not mentioned.
What is the primary stated objective of lifting the wheat export ban?
- A.To reduce the government's food subsidy burden
- B.To boost farmers' income by raising domestic market prices✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with WTO trade obligations
- D.To increase India's foreign exchange reserves
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article quotes the Food Secretary stating the ban was lifted 'in the interest of farmers' as domestic prices are depressed, and allowing exports will increase market prices and encourage good sowing. While other factors may be secondary, the core objective is farmer welfare.
Which principle of international law is most directly invoked by the 'any armed attack against one is an attack against all' clause in the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement?
- A.Principle of Non-Intervention
- B.Collective Self-Defence (Article 51 of UN Charter)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Responsibility to Protect (R2P)
- D.Principle of Pacta Sunt Servanda
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The clause mirrors the collective self-defence principle under UN Charter Article 51, which allows states to jointly respond to an armed attack. The other options are incorrect: Non-Intervention prohibits interference, R2P relates to humanitarian crises, and Pacta Sunt Servanda is about treaty adherence.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement:
1. The agreement is a trilateral pact between Saudi Arabia, Turkey, and Pakistan.
2. Its geographical scope and specific commitments are clearly defined.
3. The pact was signed against the backdrop of the volatile West Asia crisis, including the closure of the Strait of Hormuz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the signatories are Saudi Arabia, Turkey, and Pakistan. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly states that the extent and nature of commitments and the geographical scope are not known. Statement 3 is correct: the pact was signed amidst the volatile West Asia crisis and the closure of the Strait of Hormuz.
According to the article, how many ground troops from Pakistan were deployed in Saudi Arabia in April 2026 under the Strategic Mutual Defence Agreement (SMDA)?
- A.10,000
- B.13,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.15,000
- D.20,000
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that '13,000 ground troops were deployed in the eastern part of Saudi Arabia in April this year' under the SMDA. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary strategic concern for India arising from the Mecca Joint Defence Agreement?
- A.India may lose access to Saudi oil supplies.
- B.Pakistan could invoke the pact in case of an Indian military response to a future terror attack.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The pact will lead to the formation of an Islamic NATO against India.
- D.India will be forced to choose between Iran and Saudi Arabia.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that if attacked, India would exercise self-defence, and it would be useful to sensitise Saudi Arabia because Pakistan could invoke the pact. The other options are not directly supported: oil access is not the primary concern, the pact is not a formal NATO, and India maintains friendly ties with both Iran and Saudi Arabia.
Which US government department announced the expanded economic sanctions on Iran as per the news?
- A.Department of State
- B.Department of Treasury✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Defense
- D.Department of Commerce
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that US Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent unveiled the new sanctions. The US Treasury Department is responsible for economic sanctions and financial enforcement, making option B correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Iran's response to US sanctions:
1. Iran's Parliament Speaker dismissed the sanctions, arguing Washington is not in a strong enough economic position to isolate itself.
2. Iran threatened to immediately close the Strait of Hormuz to all shipping.
3. Iran claimed that China and Russia had not accepted the US measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament Speaker Ghalibaf said Washington isn't in a strong economic position to isolate itself. Statement 2 is incorrect: Iran tightened pressure on shipping but did not threaten immediate closure; it blacklisted 45 tankers for violating rules. Statement 3 is correct: Economy Minister Madanizadeh said China and Russia haven't accepted the US measures. Hence option C.
According to the article, how many tankers did Iran blacklist for violating its rules in the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.30
- B.45✓ Correct Answer
- C.60
- D.33
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Tehran has blacklisted 45 tankers it says violated its rules for crossing the waterway.' The other options are distractors: 30 is the number of missile sites Iran still holds (per Senator Murphy), 60 is the US sanctions target count, and 33 is the original missile site count.
What is the primary significance of the Strait of Hormuz as highlighted in the article?
- A.It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
- B.It is the only route for oil exports from Russia.
- C.It typically carries cargoes equal to about 20% of global oil use.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is a canal built in the 19th century.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states: 'Before the war began, the Strait of Hormuz typically carried cargoes equal to about 20% of global oil use.' This highlights its role as a critical energy chokepoint. Option A refers to the Suez Canal, B is incorrect (Russia uses other routes), D is wrong as it is a natural waterway.
Which regulatory body is responsible for introducing the IT Resilience Index (ITRI) for Market Infrastructure Institutions in India?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
- D.Ministry of Finance, Government of India
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The ITRI has been introduced by SEBI, the capital markets regulator in India. It is designed to measure the resilience of critical IT systems at MIIs such as stock exchanges, clearing corporations, and depositories. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates banking and monetary policy, while IRDAI regulates insurance.
Consider the following statements regarding SEBI's IT Resilience Index (ITRI):
1. The ITRI is a compliance-based framework that checks whether Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) are following existing IT rules.
2. Availability and Security have been assigned the highest weight of 20% each in the ITRI.
3. The ITRI includes an Early Warning System (EWS) to detect deterioration in its parameters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the ITRI shifts from a pure compliance-based mode to a quantitative risk-monitoring framework. Statement 2 is correct: Availability and Security each have a 20% weight, the highest among all parameters. Statement 3 is correct: MIIs are required to develop an Early Warning System to detect deterioration in ITRI parameters and take remedial measures.
According to the article, what is the weight assigned to the 'Scalability' parameter in SEBI's IT Resilience Index (ITRI)?
- A.10%
- B.15%
- C.5%✓ Correct Answer
- D.20%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Scalability has been assigned a 5% weight in the ITRI. This reflects SEBI's view that Indian markets are growing rapidly but do not pose an immediate stability risk. The highest weights are 20% each for Availability and Security, while Business Continuity & Reliability has 10%.
What is the primary objective of SEBI's IT Resilience Index (ITRI)?
- A.To increase the number of retail investors in Indian capital markets
- B.To measure the robustness of critical IT systems at MIIs using a quantitative risk-monitoring framework✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all existing cybersecurity regulations with a single compliance checklist
- D.To promote algorithmic trading and high-frequency trading in Indian markets
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The ITRI aims to gauge whether IT systems supporting trading, clearing, settlement, and securities holding can handle operational shocks, cyber threats, and spikes in market activity. It shifts from a compliance-based approach to a quantitative risk-monitoring framework, providing a measurable resilience barometer. Options A and D are not objectives of the ITRI; option C is incorrect as the ITRI does not replace all regulations but adds a new measurement layer.
Which UN treaty body is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD)?
- A.UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
- B.UN Committee on the Elimination of Racial Discrimination (UNCERD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.UN High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
- D.UN Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (CESCR)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
UNCERD is the treaty body of 18 independent experts that monitors state parties' compliance with ICERD. UNHRC is a political body, UNHCR deals with refugees, and CESCR monitors the ICESCR.
Consider the following statements regarding the UNCERD review of India:
1. UNCERD expressed grave concern over rights violations against Scheduled Tribes, Scheduled Castes, Dalits, and Rohingya refugees.
2. The committee called on India to conduct prompt investigations and ensure accountability for perpetrators of racially motivated violence.
3. India sent Solicitor General Tushar Mehta as head of delegation for the 12th periodic review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct—UNCERD called for prompt, thorough investigations. Statement 3 is incorrect because the review was the 11th periodic review, not the 12th.
On which dates did the UNCERD carry out the eleventh periodic review of India?
- A.August 25-26, 2026
- B.August 11-12, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.April 25-26, 2025
- D.September 9-10, 2026
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the committee carried out the eleventh periodic review of India on August 11-12, 2026. The press note came on August 25, 2026, which was the ninth anniversary of the Rohingya crisis.
What is the primary significance of UNCERD's reference to the principle of 'non-refoulement' in the context of this review?
- A.It requires India to sign the 1951 Refugee Convention immediately.
- B.It calls on India to refrain from collective expulsions and ensure access to international protection for asylum seekers.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates India to grant citizenship to all Rohingya refugees.
- D.It allows India to deport illegal immigrants without any legal process.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The committee called on India to refrain from collective expulsions and ensure access to international protection in line with the principle of non-refoulement, which prohibits returning people to places where they face serious threats. India is not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention, but ICERD obligations still apply.
Which Article of the Constitution of India allows the state to impose reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech in the interest of defamation?
- A.Article 19(1)(a)
- B.Article 19(2)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 21
- D.Article 14
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of speech, while Article 19(2) lists the grounds on which reasonable restrictions can be imposed, including defamation. Article 21 protects the right to life and personal liberty, which includes reputation. Article 14 is the right to equality. Hence, Article 19(2) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India (2015) struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act for being vague and overbroad.
2. Criminal defamation under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is punishable with imprisonment up to three years.
3. In Subramanian Swamy vs Union of India (2016), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of criminal defamation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Shreya Singhal struck down Section 66A. Statement 2 is incorrect: criminal defamation under BNS (Section 356) is punishable with up to two years imprisonment, not three. The three-year term was proposed in the Kerala Police Act amendment (2020) which was later withdrawn. Statement 3 is correct: Subramanian Swamy (2016) upheld criminal defamation as a reasonable restriction. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
In which year did the Supreme Court strike down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act in the Shreya Singhal case?
- A.2014
- B.2015✓ Correct Answer
- C.2016
- D.2017
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Supreme Court delivered the judgment in Shreya Singhal vs Union of India on March 24, 2015. The year 2014 is when the case was filed or argued, 2016 is the year of the Subramanian Swamy judgment, and 2017 is the year of the Puttaswamy judgment. Hence, 2015 is correct.
What is the primary constitutional principle that the Supreme Court applied in Shreya Singhal to strike down Section 66A, which must be considered in any future law on digital defamation?
- A.The principle of proportionality
- B.The principle of reasonable classification
- C.The principle of vagueness and overbreadth✓ Correct Answer
- D.The principle of severability
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
In Shreya Singhal, the Court held that Section 66A was 'vague in its entirety' and 'overbroad' because it covered speech that did not cause any immediate threat to public order. The principle of proportionality was later applied in Puttaswamy (2017) for privacy cases. Reasonable classification relates to Article 14, and severability is a doctrine for partial invalidity. Hence, vagueness and overbreadth is the correct principle.
Which US law allows the President to levy tariffs against nations that discriminate against US companies or commerce?
- A.Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act
- B.Section 201 of the Trade Act
- C.Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974✓ Correct Answer
- D.Section 337 of the Tariff Act
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the excess industrial capacity probe was initiated under Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974, which allows the president to levy tariffs against nations that discriminate against U.S. companies or commerce.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed US tariff on China:
1. The proposed tariff of 7.5% is aimed at penalizing China for flooding the global market with underpriced goods.
2. The tariff is based on a Supreme Court decision that upheld the President's power to impose sweeping tariffs.
3. The tariff would come on top of existing tariffs of 10% to 12.5% on 60 economies for forced-labour issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the tariff targets China for underpriced goods. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court struck down Trump's plan for a sweeping tariff scheme, not upheld it. Statement 3 is correct as the new tariff would be on top of the 10-12.5% tariffs already announced for 60 economies.
According to the article, what was China's trade surplus in the last year?
- A.$1.0 trillion
- B.$1.2 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$1.5 trillion
- D.$0.8 trillion
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Surging exports pushed China's trade surplus to a record of nearly $1.2 trillion last year.' The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary strategic reason for the US to keep the proposed tariff at 7.5% rather than a higher rate?
- A.To maximize revenue from Chinese imports
- B.To avoid endangering the one-year trade truce and the planned Trump-Xi meeting✓ Correct Answer
- C.To comply with WTO tariff binding commitments
- D.To encourage China to increase imports from the US
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the tariff level is 'considered by administration officials would not endanger the one-year trade truce between Washington and Beijing or a planned White House meeting between Mr. Trump and Chinese President Xi Jinping.' This shows the calibrated diplomatic intent.
Which Union Ministry is responsible for the implementation of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019 and transferred its processing to District Collectors?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The MHA is the nodal ministry for citizenship matters, including the CAA. The article explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs transferred the processing of pending applications to District Collectors.
Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) implementation in West Bengal:
1. As per the West Bengal CM, 23,000 CAA certificates have been issued.
2. Total applications made under CAA in West Bengal are 2.3 lakh.
3. The processing of pending CAA applications is currently handled by Empowered Committees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the CM announced 23,000 certificates issued. Statement 2 is correct: 2.3 lakh applications were made. Statement 3 is incorrect because the MHA has transferred processing from Empowered Committees to District Collectors. Hence option C is correct.
According to the West Bengal Chief Minister, how many citizenship certificates have been distributed under the CAA in the state?
- A.23,000✓ Correct Answer
- B.2.3 lakh
- C.2.07 lakh
- D.2.3 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that 23,000 certificates have been issued. 2.3 lakh is the total applications made, and 2.07 lakh is the pending count. 2.3 crore is not mentioned.
What is the primary administrative change introduced to fast-track the processing of CAA applications as per the news?
- A.Creation of new Empowered Committees
- B.Transfer of processing to District Collectors✓ Correct Answer
- C.Setting up of special courts
- D.Online portal for applications
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The MHA transferred pending applications from Empowered Committees to District Collectors in eight states/UTs to expedite the process. This decentralization aims to speed up the grant of citizenship certificates, fulfilling PM Modi's election promise.
Which Indian law is primarily responsible for regulating digital personal data as mentioned in the article?
- A.Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023✓ Correct Answer
- B.Information Technology Act, 2000
- C.Right to Information Act, 2005
- D.Indian Penal Code
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly references the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 (DPDPA) as the primary law governing data protection in India, noting its technology-agnostic nature and exclusion of publicly available information.
Consider the following statements regarding smart glasses and privacy laws:
1. Smart glasses are currently banned in India.
2. The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 excludes publicly available data from its scope.
3. The K.S. Puttaswamy judgment recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article states that banning such devices is impractical, not that they are banned. Statement 2 is correct: DPDPA 2023 excludes publicly available information. Statement 3 is correct: the Puttaswamy judgment established privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21.
According to NCRB data for 2023, how many cases involved the transmission or publication of sexually explicit material?
- A.698
- B.2,767✓ Correct Answer
- C.3,678
- D.4,000
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifically states that of the 3,678 women-centric cybercrimes in 2023, 2,767 cases involved transmission or publication of sexually explicit material. The other options are distractors: 698 is the number of child sexual abuse material cases, and 3,678 is the total women-centric cybercrimes.
What is the primary concern highlighted by the article regarding smart glasses?
- A.High cost of the glasses at ₹25,000
- B.Lack of privacy for individuals being recorded without consent✓ Correct Answer
- C.Poor battery life of 4-9 hours
- D.Disruption of public events
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article's central theme is the privacy gap created by smart glasses enabling non-consensual recording. While cost, battery life, and disruption are mentioned, the core concern is the violation of privacy and the inadequacy of current laws to protect individuals from being recorded without their knowledge.
Under which primary legislation was the action against e-commerce platforms initiated?
- A.Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
- B.Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
- C.Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
- D.Essential Commodities Act, 1955
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that action was initiated under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 and the Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was repealed in 2006. The other options are unrelated to food safety regulation in this context.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Karnataka Food Safety and Drug Administration Department suspended licences of Amazon, Swiggy Instamart, and BigBasket after inspections found Datura being sold as food.
2. BigBasket told the authority that it had stopped selling Datura and changed labelling to state the product was 'not for human consumption'.
3. The department accepted the responses of all three companies as satisfactory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is directly from the article. Statement 2 is also correct as BigBasket said it had stopped selling Datura and would change labelling. Statement 3 is false because the department found the responses unsatisfactory, not satisfactory. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, which of the following e-commerce platforms had their food licences suspended by Karnataka?
- A.Amazon, Flipkart, BigBasket
- B.Amazon, Swiggy Instamart, BigBasket✓ Correct Answer
- C.Swiggy, Zomato, BigBasket
- D.Amazon, Swiggy Instamart, Zomato
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifically mentions that the Karnataka Food Safety Department suspended the food licences of Amazon, Swiggy Instamart, and BigBasket. Flipkart, Zomato, and Swiggy (without Instamart) are not mentioned. This is a direct factual recall question from the news.
What is the primary objective of the action taken by the Karnataka food safety department?
- A.To impose fines on e-commerce platforms for tax evasion
- B.To protect public health by preventing sale of a poisonous substance as food✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote traditional Ayurvedic use of Datura
- D.To ban online sale of all fruits and seeds
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that Datura is poisonous and poses a serious public health risk. The suspension was to stop the sale and distribution of Datura as a food product. The other options are either irrelevant or opposite to the intent. This tests understanding of the 'why' behind the regulation.
Which department is primarily responsible for implementing the creamy layer criteria for OBC candidates in Civil Services Examinations?
- A.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- B.Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions the DoPT as the department that issued the 2004 clarification, rejected OBC claims, and filed the clarification plea. DoPT is the nodal agency for personnel management of central civil services.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court judgment of March 11, 2026 ruled that income cannot be the sole criterion for determining creamy layer among OBCs.
2. The government seeks retrospective application of the judgment to benefit all affected candidates.
3. The 2004 DoPT clarification included salary income of PSU and private sector employees as a criterion for creamy layer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the SC ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect because the government is seeking non-retrospective application to avoid disrupting CSE-2025. Statement 3 is correct as the 2004 clarification included salary income from PSUs and private sector.
How many OBC candidates have been affected by the DoPT's rejection based on creamy layer criteria since the CSE-2016 batch?
- A.50
- B.100✓ Correct Answer
- C.150
- D.200
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states 'around 100 candidates' who cleared the CSE but had their OBC claims rejected by DoPT on creamy layer grounds since the rigorous application began from CSE-2015 (2016 batch).
What is the primary concern raised by the Centre regarding the retrospective application of the SC judgment to the CSE-2025 batch?
- A.Disruption of training schedule and cascading effect on seniority and pay fixation✓ Correct Answer
- B.Increased financial burden on the government for additional benefits
- C.Legal challenges from non-OBC candidates
- D.Political backlash from anti-reservation groups
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that delay in finalising the category-wise merit list would affect training schedules, batch strength, logistics, cadre allocation, and seniority/pay fixation of the incoming batch.
Which ministry is responsible for conducting the Census in India?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions that the 40 questions for the Census 2027 were notified by the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner operates under this ministry.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Census 2027 disability question includes 9 categories of disability.
2. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 recognizes 21 disabilities.
3. The Census 2027 question includes a separate category for autism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states the categories increased from 8 in 2011 to 9 in 2027. Statement 2 is correct: the RPwD Act 2016 expanded the schedule to 21 conditions. Statement 3 is incorrect: autism is not a separate category; it is omitted (the article notes it is often misclassified as intellectual disability).
How many categories of disability were included in the Census 2011 disability question?
- A.6
- B.7
- C.8✓ Correct Answer
- D.9
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly says 'The categories have increased from eight in 2011 to nine'. Therefore, the 2011 Census had 8 categories.
What is the primary consequence of not including separate categories for conditions like thalassemia and haemophilia in the Census?
- A.They will be counted under a single 'blood disorder' category, preventing targeted policy evaluation.✓ Correct Answer
- B.They will be excluded entirely from the Census.
- C.The UDID database will automatically capture them.
- D.State governments will conduct separate surveys for these conditions.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article argues that aggregating distinct conditions like thalassemia, haemophilia, and sickle cell under 'blood disorder' makes it impossible to evaluate specific missions (e.g., National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission) or allocate resources appropriately.
Which institution published the 'State of Working India 2026' report mentioned in the article?
- A.Azim Premji University✓ Correct Answer
- B.Delhi School of Economics
- C.National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
- D.Indian Statistical Institute
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the data is sourced from the State of Working India 2026 report by researchers at the Azim Premji University. This is a key static fact to remember for exam linkage.
Consider the following statements regarding the NEET metric as discussed in the article:
1. NEET stands for 'Not in Employment, Education, or Training' and is a broader measure of labour under-utilisation than the UER.
2. According to the article, the NEET rate for Indian youth (15-29 years) in 2025 was 25%.
3. The NEET metric includes only the unemployed, not those who are out of the labour force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: NEET is defined as 'Not in Employment, Education, or Training' and it captures those not in the labour force as well as the unemployed. Statement 2 is correct: the article states 25% of youth were in NEET according to PLFS data. Statement 3 is incorrect: NEET includes both unemployed and those out of the labour force (e.g., discouraged workers). Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what was the estimated number of Indian youth (age 15-29) who were in NEET in 2026?
- A.6.8 crore
- B.9.2 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.10.5 crore
- D.12.3 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article calculates that applying the 25% NEET rate to the 2026 youth population of 36.8 crore yields 9.2 crore youth in NEET. The other options are distractors: 6.8 crore is close to the number of jobs added in agriculture, while 10.5 and 12.3 are not mentioned.
Why does the article argue that the Unemployment Rate (UER) is a misleading indicator for India's job market?
- A.Because it includes all people over 15 years, inflating the denominator.
- B.Because it excludes discouraged workers and those not actively seeking work, especially women.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Because it is calculated only for the formal sector, ignoring informal employment.
- D.Because it is based on outdated data from the 2011 Census.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that in India, many people, particularly women, do not register as looking for work due to social norms or discouragement, so they are not counted in the labour force. Thus UER underestimates the true extent of joblessness. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which trade agreement governs the current trade relationship between the US, Canada, and Mexico?
- A.NAFTA
- B.USMCA✓ Correct Answer
- C.CPTPP
- D.WTO Agreements
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The USMCA (United States-Mexico-Canada Agreement) replaced NAFTA in 2020 and is the current framework governing trade among the three nations. The article mentions the pact underpins $1.6 trillion in North American trade.
Consider the following statements:
1. Canada is set to announce retaliatory tariffs against the US after trade talks collapsed.
2. US President Trump has threatened a 50% tariff on all Canadian imports, including steel and aluminum.
3. Ontario Premier Doug Ford suggested Canada should charge the US more for oil, gas, electricity, and critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Canada will announce retaliatory tariffs on Tuesday. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 50% tariff is specifically on vehicles, auto parts, and steel, not all Canadian imports. Statement 3 is correct: Ford suggested charging more for energy exports. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the threatened tariff rate on Canadian vehicles, auto parts, and steel?
- A.25%
- B.50%✓ Correct Answer
- C.75%
- D.100%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that Trump threatened new 50% tariffs on Canadian vehicles, auto parts, and steel, effective from 1st January. The current rate is 25%, but the threatened increase is to 50%.
What is the primary strategic objective behind Canada's decision to fund C$11bn for building six icebreakers?
- A.To strengthen its military presence in the Arctic
- B.To diversify trade routes and reduce reliance on the US✓ Correct Answer
- C.To counter US tariffs by boosting domestic shipbuilding
- D.To protect Canadian sovereignty from US economic pressure
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions Carney is pushing to diversify Canada's trade, which has historically depended heavily on the US. The icebreakers are meant to help open winter shipping routes through Canada's northern and Atlantic waters, enabling trade with other countries.
Which department of the Union government moved the Supreme Court seeking clarification on the Rohith Nathan judgment?
- A.Department of Personnel and Training✓ Correct Answer
- B.Department of Economic Affairs
- C.Department of Legal Affairs
- D.Department of Social Justice and Empowerment
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the Centre, through the Department of Personnel and Training, argued before the Supreme Court. This department is the nodal body for personnel management and training in the central government.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's Rohith Nathan judgment:
1. The judgment directed the Centre to create supernumerary posts for candidates who approached the court within six months.
2. The judgment abolished the creamy layer concept for OBC reservations.
3. The Centre argued that applying the judgment retrospectively would affect over 3.7 lakh OBC recruitments in Central government posts since 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the judgment directed the Centre to create supernumerary posts within six months. Statement 2 is incorrect because the judgment changed the method of determining creamy layer, not abolished it. Statement 3 is correct as the Centre cited over 3.7 lakh OBC recruitments since 2016.
As per the Centre's application, how many OBC recruitments in Central government posts since 2016 would be affected if the Rohith Nathan judgment is applied retrospectively?
- A.1.7 lakh
- B.2.7 lakh
- C.3.7 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.4.7 lakh
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Centre's application says retrospective application would affect over 3.7 lakh OBC recruitments in Central government posts since 2016. The other figures are distractors.
What is the primary concern raised by the Centre against the retrospective application of the Rohith Nathan judgment?
- A.It would reduce the total number of OBC candidates in government jobs
- B.It would lead to a cascade of litigation and affect the rights of resource-deprived candidates✓ Correct Answer
- C.It would increase the creamy layer income threshold to ₹1 crore
- D.It would require all State governments to create new departments
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Centre argued that implementation might affect the claims and rights of resource-deprived candidates and result in a cascade of litigation from previous years' candidates. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which Indian official serves as the designated Special Representative for the India-China boundary talks?
- A.Minister of External Affairs
- B.National Security Advisor✓ Correct Answer
- C.Defence Minister
- D.Foreign Secretary
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
According to the article, NSA Ajit Doval is the Special Representative on the India-China Boundary Question. His counterpart is Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi. This is a static GK fact from the SR mechanism.
Consider the following statements:
1. The 25th Round of Special Representatives talks is taking place in Beijing.
2. The Special Representatives mechanism was established in 2005 to resolve the India-China border dispute.
3. NSA Doval's visit comes ahead of Chinese President Xi Jinping's expected trip to India for the BRICS Summit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the 25th SR talks are in Beijing. Statement 2 is incorrect: the mechanism was established in 2003, not 2005. Statement 3 is correct: the visit is ahead of Xi's expected trip for the BRICS Summit on September 12.
What is the total length of the India-China border mentioned in the article?
- A.3,488 km✓ Correct Answer
- B.3,488 miles
- C.3,844 km
- D.4,056 km
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states the border spanning 3,488 km. Options B, C, and D are common distractors. This number is important for prelims mapping questions.
What is the primary purpose of the Special Representatives talks mentioned in the news?
- A.To sign a formal peace treaty between India and China
- B.To comprehensively address the India-China boundary dispute✓ Correct Answer
- C.To negotiate trade agreements and economic cooperation
- D.To coordinate India's participation in the BRICS Summit
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the SR mechanism was established 'to comprehensively address the dispute of the India-China border'. While trade and BRICS are related contexts, the core mandate of the SR talks is boundary resolution.
The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies of water?
- A.Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman✓ Correct Answer
- B.Persian Gulf and Red Sea
- C.Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea
- D.Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Strait of Hormuz is a narrow waterway between Iran and Oman, separating the Persian Gulf from the Arabian Sea. It connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, which then opens into the Arabian Sea.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Strait of Hormuz is a 55-km wide waterway.
2. Pakistan is a guarantor of the interim peace agreement between the US and Iran.
3. The US-Iran conflict began in April 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Strait of Hormuz is a 55-km wide narrow waterway. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions Pakistan signed as a guarantor for the interim peace agreement. Statement 3 is incorrect because the conflict began on February 28, 2026, not in April.
According to the article, what percentage of global oil passed through the Strait of Hormuz before the conflict began?
- A.One-tenth
- B.One-fifth✓ Correct Answer
- C.One-third
- D.One-quarter
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'a fifth of global oil passed through it before the conflict began on February 28.' This is a key data point for Prelims questions on energy security and strategic chokepoints.
What is the primary strategic objective of Pakistan's diplomatic engagement with Iran, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To secure exclusive oil supply rights from Iran
- B.To mediate the reopening of the Strait of Hormuz and de-escalate the US-Iran conflict✓ Correct Answer
- C.To form a new military alliance against the United States
- D.To gain access to Iranian military technology
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that Pakistan's visit is part of its 'diplomatic efforts to break the deadlock in the ongoing U.S.-Iran conflict' and to explore 'ways for achieving enduring peace.' The discussions focused on the 'reopening of the Strait of Hormuz and expedited termination of the conflict.'
Which department of the Maharashtra government released the draft bill to regulate private coaching centres?
- A.Maharashtra School Education and Sports Department✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Education, Government of India
- C.Maharashtra Home Department
- D.Maharashtra Law and Judiciary Department
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the State School Education and Sports Department released the draft Bill. This is a static fact linking the news to the state's administrative structure.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Private Coaching Centres (Registration and Regulation) Bill, 2026:
1. The bill prohibits coaching centres from enrolling students below 13 years of age.
2. The bill requires a minimum of 50 students for a coaching centre to register.
3. The bill provides for a weekly off and bans tests the day after a holiday.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the draft bill prohibits enrollment of students below 13 years. Statement 2 is incorrect: the minimum is 25 students, not 50. Statement 3 is correct: the bill mandates a weekly off and no tests the day after a holiday. Hence option C is correct.
What is the maximum penalty for major violations under the Maharashtra draft bill for coaching centres?
- A.₹1 lakh
- B.₹10 lakh
- C.₹50 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹5 lakh
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that for major violations, the penalty ranges from ₹10 to ₹50 lakh. The maximum is ₹50 lakh. Other options are lower amounts mentioned for minor violations (₹1-5 lakh) or in other states.
What immediate event triggered the Maharashtra government to draft a law regulating coaching centres?
- A.A Supreme Court directive on coaching centre regulation
- B.The NEET-UG 2026 paper leak involving a coaching centre founder✓ Correct Answer
- C.A protest by students over high coaching fees
- D.A central government model bill for coaching centres
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the draft law was released in the wake of the NEET-UG 2026 paper leak, where the primary accused was the founder of a reputed NEET coaching centre in Maharashtra. This event highlighted the lack of regulation.
Which regulatory body has drafted the new Multi-Year Tariff Regulations for energy storage systems in Kerala?
- A.Kerala State Electricity Board (KSEB)
- B.Kerala State Electricity Regulatory Commission (KSERC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
- D.Ministry of Power, Government of India
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that KSERC has drawn up the draft MYT regulations. KSEB is the utility board, not the regulator. CERC is central, and Ministry of Power is not involved at this stage.
Consider the following statements regarding the draft KSERC MYT Regulations 2026:
1. For the first time, provisions for energy storage systems have been included in the MYT regulations.
2. The draft regulations recognize Energy Storage System Developers (ESSD) as a new class of regulated entities.
3. The control period for the new tariffs begins in 2026-27.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article says 'first time that provisions for energy storage systems have been proposed as part of the MYT regulations.' Statement 2 is correct: ESSD is recognized as a new regulated entity. Statement 3 is incorrect: the control period starts from 2027-28, not 2026-27.
What is the capacity of the largest Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) project planned by KSEB in Kerala under the new regulations?
- A.15 MW / 60 MWh
- B.40 MW / 160 MWh
- C.125 MW / 500 MWh✓ Correct Answer
- D.30 MW / 120 MWh
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions the Mylatti project in Kasaragod with a capacity of 125 MW/500 MWh as the largest. The other options are capacities of other projects (Mulleria 15/60, Sreekantapuram 40/160, Areacode 30/120).
What is the primary objective of including provisions for energy storage systems in the draft MYT regulations?
- A.To reduce electricity tariffs for consumers
- B.To enable better utilization of solar power and manage peak demand✓ Correct Answer
- C.To privatize the electricity distribution sector in Kerala
- D.To increase the state's coal-based power generation
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article highlights that absence of large-scale energy storage has prevented Kerala from benefiting from its solar capacity surge, and the budget announced plans for storage to meet peak demand. The regulations aim to facilitate storage deployment, not reduce tariffs or privatize distribution.
Which bilateral commission did EAM Jaishankar co-chair with First Deputy Prime Minister Denis Manturov during his visit to Russia?
- A.India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC)✓ Correct Answer
- B.India-Russia Joint Commission on Defence and Security
- C.India-Russia Energy Dialogue Mechanism
- D.India-Russia Civil Nuclear Cooperation Commission
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that Jaishankar co-chaired a meeting of the India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC) with First Deputy Prime Minister Denis Manturov. This is a key bilateral mechanism for economic and cultural cooperation.
Consider the following statements regarding EAM Jaishankar's visit to Russia:
1. He met both Russian President Vladimir Putin and Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov during the visit.
2. The visit was exclusively focused on resolving the Ukraine conflict.
3. Russian President Putin is expected to visit New Delhi for the BRICS Leaders' Summit in September 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Jaishankar called on Putin and also held talks with Lavrov. Statement 2 is incorrect: the visit was wide-ranging, covering bilateral cooperation, regional hotspots (Ukraine, Afghanistan, Iran), and global challenges – not exclusively Ukraine. Statement 3 is correct as per the article that Putin's expected visit to New Delhi for the BRICS summit is on September 12-13. Hence option C is correct.
What are the dates of the BRICS Leaders' Summit mentioned in the article?
- A.August 23-24, 2026
- B.September 12-13, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.August 25-26, 2026
- D.October 12-13, 2026
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the visit comes ahead of Russian President Vladimir Putin's expected visit to New Delhi for the BRICS leaders' summit on September 12-13. The other options are distractors: August 23-24 is the date of Jaishankar's visit, and August 25 is the publication date.
What is the primary significance of EAM Jaishankar's visit to Russia in the context of India's foreign policy?
- A.To finalize a major defense purchase agreement
- B.To coordinate approaches on global issues and strengthen bilateral ties ahead of the BRICS summit✓ Correct Answer
- C.To protest Russia's actions in Ukraine
- D.To negotiate a free trade agreement with the Eurasian Economic Union
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article highlights that the visit aimed to discuss bilateral cooperation, regional hotspots, and multilateral issues, and it comes ahead of Putin's expected visit for the BRICS summit. While defense and trade may be part of broader ties, the primary significance is the coordination of stances on global issues and preparation for the summit, reflecting India's strategic autonomy.
Which agency of the U.S. Treasury Department is responsible for enforcing the sanctions imposed on Wellbred Capital?
- A.U.S. Department of State
- B.Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
- D.Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the U.S. Treasury's Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) announced the sanctions on its website. OFAC is the primary agency for administering and enforcing economic sanctions.
Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. sanctions on Wellbred Capital:
1. The sanctions were imposed by the United Nations Security Council.
2. Mohammad Hossein Shamkhani is the son of a deceased senior Iranian security official.
3. The sanctions target nearly 60 companies, individuals, and ships.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the sanctions were imposed by the U.S. Treasury (unilateral action), not the UN. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions Mohammad Hossein Shamkhani is the son of the now-deceased senior Iranian security official Ali Shamkhani. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the measures target nearly 60 companies, individuals, and ships.
According to the article, how many entities (companies, individuals, and ships) are targeted in the latest U.S. sanctions action related to Wellbred Capital?
- A.Nearly 40
- B.Nearly 50
- C.Nearly 60✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 70
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'the measures targeting nearly 60 companies, individuals and ships.' The other options are close distractors but the exact figure mentioned is 'nearly 60'.
What is the primary strategic objective behind the U.S. imposing sanctions on Wellbred Capital and its network?
- A.To increase global oil prices
- B.To disrupt Iran's global financial links and oil export revenue✓ Correct Answer
- C.To punish Singapore for its trade policies
- D.To promote renewable energy in the Middle East
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the U.S. is 'stepping up measures to target Tehran's global financial links.' The sanctions target entities involved in shipping Iranian oil, which is a key revenue source for Iran. Options A, C, and D are not mentioned or are contrary to the objective of the sanctions.
Which Indian official represents the country in the Special Representative (SR) talks on the boundary question with China?
- A.Defence Minister
- B.External Affairs Minister
- C.National Security Advisor✓ Correct Answer
- D.Home Minister
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
As per the established mechanism, the National Security Advisor (NSA) of India serves as the Special Representative for the boundary talks with China. The article confirms that NSA Ajit Doval led the Indian side in the 25th round of talks.
Consider the following statements regarding the 25th round of India-China Special Representative talks:
1. The talks were held in New Delhi.
2. The Chinese delegation was led by Foreign Minister Wang Yi.
3. The talks are taking place ahead of Chinese President Xi Jinping's expected visit to India for the BRICS Summit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the talks were held in Beijing, not New Delhi. Statement 2 is correct: Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi led the delegation. Statement 3 is correct: the talks precede Xi Jinping's expected visit for the BRICS Summit. Hence option C is correct.
What was the round number of the India-China Special Representative talks held on August 25, 2026?
- A.23rd
- B.24th
- C.25th✓ Correct Answer
- D.26th
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that India and China held the '25th round of talks between the Special Representatives (SRs) on the boundary question' on August 25, 2026. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary stated objective of the Special Representative talks between India and China as highlighted in the news?
- A.To finalise a comprehensive boundary treaty
- B.To institutionalise stability in bilateral relations✓ Correct Answer
- C.To negotiate a new trade agreement
- D.To coordinate on counter-terrorism operations
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article quotes Chinese scholar Hu Shisheng stating that the focus of both countries would be on 'institutionalising stability' even as structural differences persist. This is the core objective mentioned, rather than a final resolution or other specific agreements.
Which organization currently maintains the rare disease registry in India as mentioned in the article?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- D.National Health Mission
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has set up a rare disease registry based on data uploaded by experts from 19 specialised hospitals. This is a static fact directly from the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the Patient Data Collective (PDC) proposed in the article:
1. The PDC is inspired by the Amul dairy cooperative model.
2. The PDC will be a government-run centralized database for all rare disease patients in India.
3. The PDC aims to use AI to synthesize medical records and assist in diagnosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly says the inspiration comes from the dairy cooperative Amul. Statement 2 is incorrect because the PDC is proposed as a cooperative that holds patients’ data on their behalf, not a government-run database. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions using AI to synthesize medical records and suggest possible diagnoses.
According to the article, approximately how many patients are currently registered in the ICMR rare disease registry?
- A.1,000
- B.4,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.10,000
- D.19,000
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the ICMR registry has collected data on around 4,000 patients with select diseases over the last five years. The other options are distractors; 19 is the number of hospitals, not patients.
What is the primary objective of proposing a Patient Data Collective (PDC) model for rare diseases in India?
- A.To replace all existing hospital records with a single digital platform
- B.To accelerate drug discovery and clinical trials by pooling patient data✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide free medical treatment to all rare disease patients
- D.To create a government monopoly on rare disease research
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explains that the PDC aims to hold patients’ data to facilitate research, improve trial design, and help bring safe and effective treatments to patients with rare diseases more quickly. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which US department proposed the new $103,265 fee on H-1B cap-subject petitions?
- A.Department of State
- B.Department of Homeland Security✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Justice
- D.Department of Labor
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
According to the article, the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) filed the proposal for the new fee. The State Department handles visa issuances, but DHS oversees immigration fees and petitions.
Consider the following statements:
1. The US plans to revoke up to 2 lakh B1/B2 visas issued to individuals who entered as short-term visitors and later filed for asylum.
2. The proposed $103,265 fee applies to all H-1B visa petitions, including those not subject to the annual cap.
3. The earlier $100,000 fee for H-1B visas was struck down by a federal court in June 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states revocation of B1/B2 visas issued to asylum seekers. Statement 2 is incorrect: the fee applies to 'H-1B cap-subject petitions' only, not all H-1B petitions. Statement 3 is correct: the earlier $100,000 fee was struck down by a Massachusetts federal court in June 2026. Hence option C is correct.
What is the proposed fee for new H-1B cap-subject petitions according to the DHS proposal?
- A.$100,000
- B.$103,265✓ Correct Answer
- C.$105,000
- D.$98,900
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that DHS proposed a fee of $103,265 (approximately ₹98.9 lakh) for new H-1B cap-subject petitions. The earlier $100,000 fee was struck down, and $98,900 is the approximate rupee value, not the USD amount.
What is the stated primary objective of imposing the new $103,265 fee on H-1B cap-subject petitions?
- A.To reduce the number of H-1B visas issued
- B.To cover the government's costs of running the legal immigration system✓ Correct Answer
- C.To discourage asylum seekers from using H-1B visas
- D.To fund the revocation of B1/B2 visas
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
According to the article, DHS stated that the money from the fee would help cover the government's costs of running the legal immigration system, spanning work by DHS, DOJ, State, and Labor. The other options are not supported by the text.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the transfer of DRDO-developed missile technologies to the Indian defence industry?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Defence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
DRDO functions under the Ministry of Defence, and the approval for technology transfer was given by the Defence Minister, making the Ministry of Defence the nodal body for this decision.
Consider the following statements regarding the transfer of DRDO-developed missile technologies:
1. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh approved the transfer of DRDO-developed conventional missile system technologies to the Indian defence industry.
2. The move is intended to promote greater participation of foreign industries in the Indian defence ecosystem.
3. The transfer will enable the transition of missile system development to industrial production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Defence Minister approved the transfer. Statement 2 is incorrect because the move is to promote domestic industries, not foreign industries. Statement 3 is correct as per the ministry's announcement that it will enable transition from development to industrial production.
Who approved the transfer of DRDO-developed conventional missile technologies to the Indian defence industry?
- A.Prime Minister Narendra Modi
- B.Defence Minister Rajnath Singh✓ Correct Answer
- C.DRDO Chairman
- D.Cabinet Committee on Security
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has approved the transfer of DRDO-developed technologies of all conventional missile systems to the Indian defence industry.'
What is the primary objective of approving the transfer of DRDO-developed missile technologies to the Indian defence industry?
- A.To increase export of Indian defence equipment
- B.To enhance domestic manufacturing capabilities and strengthen the defence industrial base✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the budget allocation for defence R&D
- D.To promote foreign direct investment in the defence sector
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Defence Ministry stated that the objective is to 'enhance domestic manufacturing capabilities, strengthen the defence industrial base and create opportunities for the participation of Indian MSMEs and other technology partners in the supply chain.'
Which regulatory body is responsible for setting and enforcing drug-testing norms for commercial pilots in India?
- A.Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
- B.Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Airports Authority of India (AAI)
- D.Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The DGCA, under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, is the statutory regulator for civil aviation safety in India, including licensing and medical fitness of pilots. BCAS handles security, AAI manages airports, and NCB deals with narcotics enforcement – not pilot drug testing.
Consider the following statements regarding the proposed drug-testing policy for commercial pilots:
1. Currently, the DGCA mandates random psychoactive substance tests for 10% of the pilot network.
2. The proposal aims to test all commercial pilots randomly throughout the year.
3. Air India and Air India Express have already implemented mandatory testing for all their pilots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
All statements are correct as per the article. Statement 1: Current rules test 10% of pilots. Statement 2: The government proposes 100% round-the-year random testing. Statement 3: Air India and Air India Express have started mandatory testing of all their pilots.
What percentage of commercial pilots are currently subject to random drug testing under existing DGCA norms?
- A.5%
- B.10%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15%
- D.25%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the current rules mandate random drug tests for 10% of the overall pilot network. The other options are close distractors – 5% is too low, 15% and 25% are higher than the actual figure.
What was the immediate trigger for the government's proposal to strengthen drug-testing norms for commercial pilots?
- A.A routine audit by the DGCA revealing widespread drug use among pilots
- B.A parliamentary committee recommendation on aviation safety
- C.An Air India captain testing positive for marijuana after a sudden altitude loss incident✓ Correct Answer
- D.A directive from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states that the issue of substance use by pilots came under scrutiny after an Air India captain operating a Phuket-Delhi flight involved in a sudden altitude loss incident tested positive for marijuana. This incident directly prompted the DGCA to review and strengthen drug-testing standards.
Which state government department is responsible for implementing the TN-ARIVU curriculum?
- A.Tamil Nadu Department of Higher Education
- B.Tamil Nadu School Education Department✓ Correct Answer
- C.Tamil Nadu Department of Information Technology
- D.Tamil Nadu State Council for Educational Research and Training
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The TN-ARIVU curriculum was announced by the Tamil Nadu School Education Minister Rajmohan, making the School Education Department the nodal body for its implementation. Higher Education deals with colleges/universities, IT department handles technology infrastructure, and SCERT is a research body under the School Education Department.
Consider the following statements regarding the TN-ARIVU curriculum:
1. The curriculum will be implemented from the academic year 2026-27.
2. ARIVU Foundation is designed for Classes I-V, ARIVU Discovery for Classes VI-VIII, and ARIVU Edge for Classes IX-XII.
3. The Vetripathai Scheme provides quality coaching for national-level entrance examinations to students in 172 government higher secondary schools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The curriculum will be implemented from the academic year 2027-28, not 2026-27. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: ARIVU Foundation (I-V), Discovery (VI-VIII), Edge (IX-XII). Statement 3 is correct: Vetripathai Scheme will be implemented in 172 government higher secondary schools with ₹22.36 crore allocation.
What is the total estimated outlay announced by the Tamil Nadu School Education Minister for the 31 initiatives under his department?
- A.₹44,527 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹45,000 crore
- C.₹40,000 crore
- D.₹50,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states 'a total of 31 initiatives under the department with a total estimated outlay of ₹44,527 crore'. The other options are plausible distractors: ₹45,000 crore is a rounded figure, ₹40,000 crore is a lower round figure, and ₹50,000 crore is a higher round figure.
What is the primary objective of the Mathichudar Scheme announced by the Tamil Nadu government?
- A.To provide free sports uniforms to students
- B.To improve conceptual understanding of students through competency-based assessment✓ Correct Answer
- C.To set up Tamil Chair at the University of Houston
- D.To provide coaching for chess and traditional games in middle schools
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the Mathichudar Scheme is a 'competency-based assessment' implemented to 'improve the conceptual understanding of students in Class VI-XII'. Option A refers to the sports uniform initiative, option C is a separate funding announcement, and option D is the chess coaching initiative.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the regulation of sugar prices and stock limits in India?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The Food Secretary, who announced the price intervention measures, belongs to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. This ministry oversees the Essential Commodities Act and manages food price stabilization, including sugar.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent sugar price intervention:
1. The government allowed import of 1 million tonnes of raw sugar to boost domestic supply.
2. Ex-mill sugar prices fell to ₹55/kg, and this decline has fully passed on to retail markets.
3. The annual domestic demand for sugar in India is around 280-285 lakh tonnes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the government allowed import of 1 million tonnes of raw sugar. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly states the decline in ex-mill prices has NOT yet filtered down to wholesale and retail markets. Statement 3 is correct: annual domestic demand stands at 280-285 lakh tonnes. Hence option C is correct.
According to the news article, what was the average all-India retail price of sugar on August 24, 2026?
- A.₹55.00 per kg
- B.₹58.29 per kg
- C.₹63.05 per kg✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹67.00 per kg
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the average retail price stood at ₹63.05 per kg on August 24, as per data from the Consumer Affairs Ministry. ₹55/kg is the ex-mill price, ₹58.29/kg is the wholesale price, and ₹67/kg was the record high ex-mill price last week.
What is the primary objective of imposing stock limits on bulk consumers of sugar, as mentioned in the news?
- A.To increase government revenue through licensing fees
- B.To encourage sugar exports and earn foreign exchange
- C.To prevent hoarding and speculative price rises✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the production of sugar in the next season
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the government imposed stock limits on bulk consumers and directed states to intensify inspections to check hoarding and speculation. This is a supply-side measure under the Essential Commodities Act to ensure adequate market supply and cool prices, not for revenue or export promotion.
Under the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Act, 2026, a person intending to convert to another faith must inform which authority at least 60 days in advance?
- A.Police Commissioner
- B.District Magistrate✓ Correct Answer
- C.State Home Minister
- D.Chief Minister
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The law explicitly states that the person must inform the district magistrate 60 days in advance. This is a key administrative procedure under the act. The other options are distractors; the district magistrate is the designated authority for such notifications.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Act, 2026:
1. The law requires a 60-day advance notice to the district magistrate for any religious conversion.
2. Violations of the law can lead to a maximum imprisonment of 10 years.
3. The law allows conversions only if the person is born into the religion they are converting to.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the law mandates 60-day notice to the district magistrate. Statement 2 is incorrect: the punishment is 7 years, not 10 years. Statement 3 is incorrect: the law does not require the person to be born into a particular religion; it regulates conversions from any faith. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
What is the maximum prison term prescribed for violations of the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Act, 2026?
- A.5 years
- B.7 years✓ Correct Answer
- C.10 years
- D.3 years
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the law provides for punishment of seven years in jail for violations of procedures. Options 5, 10, and 3 years are common distractors used in exams to test precise recall.
Why have churches in the Mumbai Metropolitan Region started collecting self-declaration forms from worshippers following the enactment of the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Act, 2026?
- A.To comply with a legal requirement to maintain records of all worshippers
- B.To protect themselves and worshippers from false accusations of forced conversion and potential violence✓ Correct Answer
- C.To register new converts and report them to the district magistrate
- D.To collect demographic data for the government census
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the forms are taken for 'self-safety' and to show to authorities if asked, because of attacks on churches and harassment by right-wing groups. The other options are not supported by the news; the forms are not a legal requirement, nor are they for registration or census purposes.
Which UK government department signed the agreement with Andhra Pradesh for infrastructure development?
- A.UK Foreign, Commonwealth & Development Office
- B.UK Department for Business and Trade✓ Correct Answer
- C.UK Export Finance (UKEF)
- D.UK Ministry of Housing, Communities and Local Government
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the agreement was signed between the Andhra Pradesh government and the UK's Department for Business and Trade. UKEF is a separate agency that may provide financial assistance but is not the signatory department.
Consider the following statements:
1. Singapore had opted out of the Amaravati capital city development plan in 2019.
2. The Andhra Pradesh government signed an MoU with Singapore in 2025 for Amaravati's development.
3. The agreement with the UK focuses solely on the development of Amaravati capital city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Singapore opted out in 2019 when TDP lost power. Statement 2 is correct: In 2025, the state signed an MoU with Singapore. Statement 3 is incorrect because the UK agreement covers not just Amaravati but also 123 municipalities and municipal corporations across the state.
What is the total value of ongoing infrastructure projects in the 123 municipalities of Andhra Pradesh that will benefit from the UK collaboration?
- A.Rs 20,000 crore
- B.Rs 30,000 crore
- C.Rs 40,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rs 50,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifically mentions that there are infrastructure projects worth Rs 40,000 crore going on in the 123 municipalities. This data point is important for prelims questions testing exact figures mentioned in the news.
What is the primary objective of the Andhra Pradesh-UK collaboration on infrastructure development?
- A.To secure direct foreign aid from the UK government
- B.To leverage UK expertise for sustainable urban development and technology transfer✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace Singapore as the sole partner for Amaravati's development
- D.To privatize all municipal services in Andhra Pradesh
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article emphasizes that the collaboration aims to leverage UK expertise and technical support for sustainable urban development, technology transfer (ITS, BIM, digital twins), and knowledge exchange. While financial assistance through UKEF is possible, the core objective is expertise and technology, not direct aid or replacing Singapore.
Which international organization was the venue for PM Modi's 2026 summit attendance in Central Asia?
- A.European Union
- B.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Association of Southeast Asian Nations
- D.South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that PM Modi attended the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit in Kyrgyzstan during his 2026 Central Asia visit. The other options are regional organizations not mentioned in the context of this visit.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Asian region as per the article:
1. The Central Asian Five have signed a friendship treaty among themselves.
2. India has direct overland access to Central Asia via Pakistan.
3. The long-running border disputes in the Fergana Valley have been settled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions the Central Asian Five signed a friendship treaty. Statement 2 is incorrect: India lacks direct land access to Central Asia, as Pakistan blocks the obvious overland route. Statement 3 is correct: border disputes in the Fergana Valley have been settled among Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan, and Tajikistan.
Which Central Asian country announced its accession to the Abraham Accords during a summit with the United States?
- A.Kazakhstan✓ Correct Answer
- B.Uzbekistan
- C.Kyrgyzstan
- D.Tajikistan
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'at the Central Asian summit with the US in Washington last November, Kazakhstan announced its accession to the Abraham Accords.' The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in this context.
What is the primary recommendation of the article for India's approach to Central Asia?
- A.Increase military presence in the region to counter China
- B.Match China's infrastructure spending through large-scale projects
- C.Adopt a modest and practical economic agenda focused on specific areas✓ Correct Answer
- D.Form an exclusive alliance with Russia to gain influence
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article argues for a 'less romantic and more modest Indian approach' and suggests a 'practical economic agenda focused on areas where India can contribute.' It explicitly states India cannot match China's infrastructure spending or Russia's advantages, and recommends against grand schemes.
Piyush Goyal, who led the business delegation to Japan, is the Minister of which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Defence
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article mentions Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, indicating he heads the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This ministry handles trade, commerce, and industrial policy of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Japan business delegation:
1. FICCI President expressed concern over the widening trade deficit with Japan since the signing of the economic partnership agreement in 2011.
2. The article states that critical minerals are physically located in many countries, making supply secure.
3. Over 200 business leaders from India are traveling to Japan with Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article quotes FICCI President Anant Goenka expressing concern over the widening trade deficit since the 2011 EPA. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says critical minerals are 'either physically located in a few countries, or they have been blocked by a few countries', not many countries. Statement 3 is correct: the article states 'Over 200 business leaders from India are currently travelling to Japan along with the Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal'. Hence option C.
In which year was the India-Japan Economic Partnership Agreement signed, as mentioned in the article?
- A.2010
- B.2011✓ Correct Answer
- C.2012
- D.2013
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states 'the economic partnership agreement in 2011'. This is a key date for bilateral trade relations between India and Japan.
What is the primary strategic reason for India and Japan exploring joint investments in Africa for critical minerals?
- A.To increase tourism between Africa and Asia
- B.To reduce dependence on China for critical mineral supply✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote Indian agricultural exports to Africa
- D.To establish military bases in Africa
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article begins by stating that India and Japan 'recognise the world’s growing dependency on China for critical minerals'. Joint investments in Africa are a direct response to this dependency, aiming to secure supply chains and expand mining capabilities.
Which Act requires e-commerce platforms selling food to obtain a licence?
- A.Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
- B.Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
- C.Essential Commodities Act, 1955
- D.Information Technology Act, 2000
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, businesses involved in sale and distribution of food are regulated as Food Business Operators (FBOs). E-commerce platforms selling food fall under this category and must obtain an FSSAI licence.
Consider the following statements:
1. E-commerce platforms that merely provide a directory or listing of food businesses are exempt from FSSAI licence.
2. Karnataka has permanently suspended the food licences of Amazon, Swiggy Instamart, and BigBasket.
3. The suspension order specifies the exact licence numbers and premises covered.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) None
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: an online entity that merely provides a directory or listing of food businesses may be exempt. Statement 2 is incorrect because the suspension is not permanent; platforms can submit compliance reports and authorities must give a hearing before revoking. Statement 3 is incorrect: the order does not specify licence numbers or premises.
Under FSSAI rules, what type of licence must e-commerce Food Business Operators obtain irrespective of their turnover?
- A.State Licence
- B.Central Licence✓ Correct Answer
- C.Local Registration
- D.Export Licence
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states: 'Under FSSAI rules, e-commerce FBOs are required to obtain a Central Licence from the Central Licensing Authority, irrespective of their turnover.' This is a key factual point for exams.
What is the immediate action required from Amazon, Swiggy Instamart, and BigBasket following the Karnataka suspension order?
- A.They must stop all food sales in Karnataka until further orders.
- B.They are permanently banned from selling food in India.
- C.They must remove listings of datura fruits/seeds and submit compliance reports.✓ Correct Answer
- D.They can continue operations but face a monetary fine.
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article directs that platforms must immediately remove or discontinue all listings of datura fruits and seeds for human consumption. They must also submit compliance reports to authorities. The suspension does not automatically stop all food sales; the impact depends on which licences are suspended.
Which Indian official served as the Special Representative for the boundary issue in the meeting with Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi?
- A.External Affairs Minister
- B.National Security Advisor✓ Correct Answer
- C.Defense Minister
- D.Home Minister
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article identifies NSA Ajit Doval as the Special Representative of India on the boundary issue, who held talks with Chinese FM Wang Yi, the Chinese Special Representative.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-China Special Representatives meeting in Beijing:
1. The meeting was held to discuss making progress on boundary delimitation.
2. The two sides agreed to strengthen peace and tranquillity in the border areas.
3. This was the first such meeting after the Galwan clash of 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states they discussed ways to 'make progress on boundary delimitation'. Statement 2 is correct as both sides agreed to strengthen peace and tranquillity in border areas. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions previous meetings in Kazan (2024) and Tianjin (2025), indicating this is not the first meeting after Galwan.
According to the article, when is the BRICS leaders summit scheduled to be held?
- A.September 10-11, 2026
- B.September 12-13, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.September 15-16, 2026
- D.October 10-11, 2026
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states that the meeting set the stage for Xi's likely visit to India for the summit of the BRICS leaders on September 12-13, as mentioned in the text: 'Xi’s likely visit to India for the summit of the BRICS leaders on September 12-13.'
What is the primary objective of the Special Representatives meeting mechanism as outlined in the article?
- A.To enhance economic cooperation between India and China
- B.To seek a political settlement of the boundary question✓ Correct Answer
- C.To boost military exchanges and confidence-building measures
- D.To coordinate climate change policies in the region
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article quotes the MEA stating that the two Special Representatives agreed to 'continue their work in seeking a political settlement of the boundary question'. The Chinese readout also mentions 'seeking a fair, reasonable, and mutually acceptable comprehensive solution to the border issue.'
Which UN body is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD)?
- A.UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
- B.Committee on Elimination of Racial Discrimination (CERD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR)
- D.International Court of Justice (ICJ)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
CERD is the treaty body that monitors ICERD, as mentioned in the article. The UNHRC is a political body, OHCHR provides support, and ICJ handles disputes between states.
Consider the following statements:
1. The UN Committee on Elimination of Racial Discrimination (CERD) released a report in Geneva flagging human rights violations in India.
2. The report specifically praised the NRC process in Assam for its inclusivity.
3. CERD also raised concerns about the Election Commission's Special Intensive Revision (SIR) process disproportionately affecting Bengali-speaking Muslim voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the report was released in Geneva. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report criticised the NRC, not praised it. Statement 3 is correct as per the article that mentions the SIR process being called out.
Where was the UN CERD report on India's human rights violations released?
- A.New York
- B.Geneva✓ Correct Answer
- C.Vienna
- D.The Hague
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states the report was released in Geneva on Tuesday, consistent with the UN Office in Geneva being the seat of CERD.
What is the primary objective of the UN CERD's recommendations regarding the NRC in Assam?
- A.To expedite the NRC process to identify all illegal immigrants
- B.To suspend the NRC and review the legislative framework to prevent racial discrimination✓ Correct Answer
- C.To expand the NRC to other states like West Bengal
- D.To provide financial compensation to excluded individuals
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article clearly states the panel urged suspension of NRC and review of the legislative framework to address systematic racial discrimination, not to expedite or expand it.
Which authority issued the list of 45 blacklisted vessels for violating Strait of Hormuz transit rules?
- A.Iran's Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA)✓ Correct Answer
- B.Indian Navy's Maritime Security Council
- C.United Nations International Maritime Organization
- D.US Central Command (CENTCOM)
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that Iran's Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) released the list of 'non-compliant' vessels. The PGSA was established in June 2026 and is responsible for regulating transit through the Strait of Hormuz according to Tehran's terms. The other options are not mentioned in the article as responsible for this action.
Consider the following statements regarding the blacklisting of ships by Iran:
1. Two Indian ships on the blacklist are the LNG tanker Disha and the bulk carrier Maha Roos.
2. Disha is owned solely by the Shipping Corporation of India (SCI).
3. Before the West Asia war, the Strait of Hormuz accounted for 20% of global crude and LNG flows.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Disha (LNG tanker) and Maha Roos (bulk carrier) are the two Indian vessels on the blacklist. Statement 2 is incorrect because Disha is owned by India LNG Transport Company No.1, a joint venture between SCI and foreign companies, not solely by SCI. Statement 3 is correct: the article states the strait accounted for 20% of global crude and LNG flows before the war.
According to the article, what percentage of India's LNG imports came from West Asia through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.40%
- B.50%
- C.60%✓ Correct Answer
- D.90%
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Around 40% of India's crude oil imports, 60% of its LNG imports, and a whopping 90% of its LPG imports came from West Asia through the strait.' Therefore, 60% is the correct figure for LNG imports. The other options are distractors: 40% for crude, 90% for LPG, and 50% is not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of Iran's Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) in imposing restrictions on vessels transiting the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.To enhance maritime security and prevent piracy
- B.To collect fees, control navigation, and assert sovereignty over the strait✓ Correct Answer
- C.To block all energy shipments to India and China
- D.To support the US blockade on Iran-linked shipping
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that the PGSA intends to charge fees for services like maritime security, navigation assistance, environmental protection, and insurance, and that Tehran insists vessels use its designated routings. This indicates the objective is to control and monetize transit through the strait, not to block all shipments to specific countries or support the US blockade. Option A is partially correct but not the primary goal; PGSA's actions are more about asserting authority.
Which institution released the report titled 'Reimagining Skilling for Viksit Bharat'?
- A.Ministry of Education
- B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
- C.Economic Survey of India
- D.Azim Premji University
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The report 'Reimagining Skilling for Viksit Bharat' was released by NITI Aayog on Saturday (August 2026), as mentioned in the article. NITI Aayog is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog report on skilling:
1. Over 90% of graduates in India are employed in roles not aligned with their qualifications.
2. The graduate unemployment rate is 20.4% for women and 13% overall.
3. The NEET category represents unemployed individuals actively seeking work.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the report says over 90% of graduates are in roles not aligned with their qualifications. Statement 2 is correct: graduate unemployment is 13% overall and 20.4% for women. Statement 3 is incorrect: the NEET category refers to youth not in education, employment or training, and the report clarifies that it does not measure joblessness or those seeking work.
According to the NITI Aayog report, what is the average starting salary per month for a generic undergraduate degree holder without any skilling?
- A.Rs 22,000✓ Correct Answer
- B.Rs 29,000
- C.Rs 25,000
- D.Rs 20,000
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The report, citing BCG's Higher Education Survey, states that individuals pursuing a generic undergraduate degree without skilling earn an average starting salary of Rs 22,000 per month. Those with skilling earn Rs 29,000 per month. Thus the correct answer is Rs 22,000.
What is the primary recommendation of NITI Aayog to address the weak job linkages of generic degrees like BA, B.Sc, and B.Com?
- A.Increase the number of universities offering generic degrees
- B.Redesign generic degrees into industry-aligned applied specialisations✓ Correct Answer
- C.Provide free education to all students in generic degrees
- D.Reduce the intake of students in BA and B.Sc programs
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The report recommends redesigning generic university courses (BA, B.Sc, B.Com) into industry-aligned applied specialisations such as BA Hospitality, B.Sc Applied Technology, and B.Com Analytics. This is a key reform to bridge the gap between education and labour market demands.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for the PRAGATI platform mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and IT
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs
- C.Cabinet Secretariat
- D.Prime Minister's Office✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
PRAGATI is an ICT-enabled platform chaired by the Prime Minister, and the PMO coordinates its meetings. The PMO is responsible for the platform's implementation and monitoring, as it directly involves the Prime Minister's supervision of project progress.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent PRAGATI meeting:
1. The meeting reviewed cyber fraud cases including digital arrest incidents.
2. The meeting reviewed six infrastructure projects with a total investment of more than ₹30,000 crore.
3. The meeting discussed the AgriStack project under the Ministry of Electronics and IT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the review of cyber fraud cases including digital arrest. Statement 2 is correct as the article states six infrastructure projects were reviewed. Statement 3 is incorrect because AgriStack comes under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, not the Ministry of Electronics and IT.
What is the cumulative investment of the six infrastructure projects reviewed during the 53rd PRAGATI meeting?
- A.₹20,000 crore
- B.₹25,000 crore
- C.₹30,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹35,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article specifically mentions a cumulative investment of more than ₹30,000 crore for the six infrastructure projects. The other options are close distractors, but ₹30,000 crore is the exact figure mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the AgriStack project as highlighted in the news?
- A.To provide free internet to farmers
- B.To leverage digital technologies and AI for agricultural data-driven decision-making✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide subsidies to farmers for purchasing tractors
- D.To set up new agricultural universities
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The PM emphasized leveraging the latest digital technologies, including AI, to derive greater value from agricultural data. AgriStack aims to build a data ecosystem for the agricultural value chain, enabling informed interventions and better targeting for farmers.
Related Current Affairs Resources
More Current Affairs Questions
Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 25 August 2026?▼
This page contains 168 current affairs questions from 25 August 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 25 August 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. section of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniq…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q3. On what date did the Supreme Court deliver the judgment barrin…
- Q4. If a police station receives information about a violation inv…
- Q5. is the chairman of the joint parliamentary committee examining…
- Q6. Consider the following statements: 1. Simultaneous elections …
- Q7. is the target year mentioned by the JPC chairman for the possi…
- Q8. is the primary constitutional requirement for the passage of t…
- Q9. US government department is responsible for designating foreig…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the US delisting o…
- Q11. In which year did HTS (formerly al-Nusra Front) break ties wit…
- Q12. is the primary objective of the US delisting of Syria and HTS …
- Q13. is the U.S. Trade Representative mentioned in the article as c…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Canada-US trad…
- Q15. was the value of Canadian goods subject to President Trump's 5…
- Q16. is the primary concern expressed by Canadian leaders, includin…
- Q17. government agency issued the notification revising the export …
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding India's wheat expo…
- Q19. According to the news, what was the all-India average retail p…
- Q20. is the primary stated objective of lifting the wheat export ban?
- Q21. principle of international law is most directly invoked by the…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Mecca Joint De…
- Q23. According to the article, how many ground troops from Pakistan…
- Q24. is the primary strategic concern for India arising from the Me…
- Q25. US government department announced the expanded economic sanct…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding Iran's response to…
- Q27. According to the article, how many tankers did Iran blacklist …
- Q28. is the primary significance of the Strait of Hormuz as highlig…
- Q29. regulatory body is responsible for introducing the IT Resilien…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding SEBI's IT Resilien…
- Q31. According to the article, what is the weight assigned to the '…
- Q32. is the primary objective of SEBI's IT Resilience Index (ITRI)?
- Q33. UN treaty body is responsible for monitoring the implementatio…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the UNCERD review …
- Q35. On which dates did the UNCERD carry out the eleventh periodic …
- Q36. is the primary significance of UNCERD's reference to the princ…
- Q37. Article of the Constitution of India allows the state to impos…
- Q38. Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court in Sh…
- Q39. In which year did the Supreme Court strike down Section 66A of…
- Q40. is the primary constitutional principle that the Supreme Court…
- Q41. US law allows the President to levy tariffs against nations th…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed US ta…
- Q43. According to the article, what was China's trade surplus in th…
- Q44. is the primary strategic reason for the US to keep the propose…
- Q45. Union Ministry is responsible for the implementation of the Ci…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship Am…
- Q47. According to the West Bengal Chief Minister, how many citizens…
- Q48. is the primary administrative change introduced to fast-track …
- Q49. Indian law is primarily responsible for regulating digital per…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding smart glasses and …
- Q51. According to NCRB data for 2023, how many cases involved the t…
- Q52. is the primary concern highlighted by the article regarding sm…
- Q53. Under which primary legislation was the action against e-comme…
- Q54. Consider the following statements: 1. The Karnataka Food Safe…
- Q55. According to the article, which of the following e-commerce pl…
- Q56. is the primary objective of the action taken by the Karnataka …
- Q57. department is primarily responsible for implementing the cream…
- Q58. Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court judgm…
- Q59. many OBC candidates have been affected by the DoPT's rejection…
- Q60. is the primary concern raised by the Centre regarding the retr…
- Q61. ministry is responsible for conducting the Census in India?
- Q62. Consider the following statements: 1. The Census 2027 disabil…
- Q63. many categories of disability were included in the Census 2011…
- Q64. is the primary consequence of not including separate categorie…
- Q65. institution published the 'State of Working India 2026' report…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET metric as…
- Q67. According to the article, what was the estimated number of Ind…
- Q68. Why does the article argue that the Unemployment Rate (UER) is…
- Q69. trade agreement governs the current trade relationship between…
- Q70. Consider the following statements: 1. Canada is set to announ…
- Q71. According to the article, what is the threatened tariff rate o…
- Q72. is the primary strategic objective behind Canada's decision to…
- Q73. department of the Union government moved the Supreme Court see…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q75. As per the Centre's application, how many OBC recruitments in …
- Q76. is the primary concern raised by the Centre against the retros…
- Q77. Indian official serves as the designated Special Representativ…
- Q78. Consider the following statements: 1. The 25th Round of Speci…
- Q79. is the total length of the India-China border mentioned in the…
- Q80. is the primary purpose of the Special Representatives talks me…
- Q81. The Strait of Hormuz connects which two bodies of water?
- Q82. Consider the following statements: 1. The Strait of Hormuz is…
- Q83. According to the article, what percentage of global oil passed…
- Q84. is the primary strategic objective of Pakistan's diplomatic en…
- Q85. department of the Maharashtra government released the draft bi…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Pr…
- Q87. is the maximum penalty for major violations under the Maharash…
- Q88. immediate event triggered the Maharashtra government to draft …
- Q89. regulatory body has drafted the new Multi-Year Tariff Regulati…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the draft KSERC MY…
- Q91. is the capacity of the largest Battery Energy Storage System (…
- Q92. is the primary objective of including provisions for energy st…
- Q93. bilateral commission did EAM Jaishankar co-chair with First De…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding EAM Jaishankar's v…
- Q95. are the dates of the BRICS Leaders' Summit mentioned in the ar…
- Q96. is the primary significance of EAM Jaishankar's visit to Russi…
- Q97. agency of the U.S. Treasury Department is responsible for enfo…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. sanctions…
- Q99. According to the article, how many entities (companies, indivi…
- Q100. is the primary strategic objective behind the U.S. imposing sa…
- Q101. Indian official represents the country in the Special Represen…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the 25th round of …
- Q103. was the round number of the India-China Special Representative…
- Q104. is the primary stated objective of the Special Representative …
- Q105. organization currently maintains the rare disease registry in …
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the Patient Data C…
- Q107. According to the article, approximately how many patients are …
- Q108. is the primary objective of proposing a Patient Data Collectiv…
- Q109. US department proposed the new $103,265 fee on H-1B cap-subjec…
- Q110. Consider the following statements: 1. The US plans to revoke …
- Q111. is the proposed fee for new H-1B cap-subject petitions accordi…
- Q112. is the stated primary objective of imposing the new $103,265 f…
- Q113. ministry is primarily responsible for the transfer of DRDO-dev…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the transfer of DR…
- Q115. approved the transfer of DRDO-developed conventional missile t…
- Q116. is the primary objective of approving the transfer of DRDO-dev…
- Q117. regulatory body is responsible for setting and enforcing drug-…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed drug-…
- Q119. percentage of commercial pilots are currently subject to rando…
- Q120. was the immediate trigger for the government's proposal to str…
- Q121. state government department is responsible for implementing th…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the TN-ARIVU curri…
- Q123. is the total estimated outlay announced by the Tamil Nadu Scho…
- Q124. is the primary objective of the Mathichudar Scheme announced b…
- Q125. ministry is primarily responsible for the regulation of sugar …
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the recent sugar p…
- Q127. According to the news article, what was the average all-India …
- Q128. is the primary objective of imposing stock limits on bulk cons…
- Q129. Under the Maharashtra Freedom of Religion Act, 2026, a person …
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the Maharashtra Fr…
- Q131. is the maximum prison term prescribed for violations of the Ma…
- Q132. Why have churches in the Mumbai Metropolitan Region started co…
- Q133. UK government department signed the agreement with Andhra Prad…
- Q134. Consider the following statements: 1. Singapore had opted out…
- Q135. is the total value of ongoing infrastructure projects in the 1…
- Q136. is the primary objective of the Andhra Pradesh-UK collaboratio…
- Q137. international organization was the venue for PM Modi's 2026 su…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Asian …
- Q139. Central Asian country announced its accession to the Abraham A…
- Q140. is the primary recommendation of the article for India's appro…
- Q141. Piyush Goyal, who led the business delegation to Japan, is the…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Japan bu…
- Q143. In which year was the India-Japan Economic Partnership Agreeme…
- Q144. is the primary strategic reason for India and Japan exploring …
- Q145. Act requires e-commerce platforms selling food to obtain a lic…
- Q146. Consider the following statements: 1. E-commerce platforms th…
- Q147. Under FSSAI rules, what type of licence must e-commerce Food B…
- Q148. is the immediate action required from Amazon, Swiggy Instamart…
- Q149. Indian official served as the Special Representative for the b…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the India-China Sp…
- Q151. According to the article, when is the BRICS leaders summit sch…
- Q152. is the primary objective of the Special Representatives meetin…
- Q153. UN body is responsible for monitoring the implementation of th…
- Q154. Consider the following statements: 1. The UN Committee on Eli…
- Q155. was the UN CERD report on India's human rights violations rele…
- Q156. is the primary objective of the UN CERD's recommendations rega…
- Q157. authority issued the list of 45 blacklisted vessels for violat…
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the blacklisting o…
- Q159. According to the article, what percentage of India's LNG impor…
- Q160. is the primary objective of Iran's Persian Gulf Strait Authori…
- Q161. institution released the report titled 'Reimagining Skilling f…
- Q162. Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog rep…
- Q163. According to the NITI Aayog report, what is the average starti…
- Q164. is the primary recommendation of NITI Aayog to address the wea…
- Q165. ministry/department is primarily responsible for the PRAGATI p…
- Q166. Consider the following statements regarding the recent PRAGATI…
- Q167. is the cumulative investment of the six infrastructure project…
- Q168. is the primary objective of the AgriStack project as highlight…