26 August 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

As per the Allocation of Business Rules, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment formulates policy on reservations. However, the DoPT implements reservation policies for central government jobs. The article mentions the Personnel Ministry sought advice from the Social Justice Ministry on implementing the SC judgment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Court directed that salaries and agricultural income be excluded from the income test. Statement 2 is incorrect: The judgment specifically addressed OBC candidates whose parents work in PSUs or private sector, not government services. Statement 3 is correct: The DoPT's application highlighted difficulty in retrospective implementation from 2012.

Explanation

The income limit was originally ₹1 lakh in 1993 and has been revised multiple times. The last revision in 2017 set it at ₹8 lakh per annum. The other options are common distractors used in examinations.

Explanation

The Centre argued that retrospective application from 2012 would unsettle settled recruitments, cause seniority issues, and lead to a barrage of claims. It sought clarification on how to implement the directions, including allowing the old reading for CSE 2025 candidates.

Explanation

As per the article, SEBI introduced the IT Resilience Index (ITRI) for market infrastructure institutions like clearing corporations and exchanges to measure their cyber readiness.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the framework will come into effect from early 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: 'Availability and Security' has a weightage of 20%, not 25%. Statement 3 is correct: MIIs shall compute ITRI on a half-yearly basis within 60 days.

Explanation

The article states that the RBI's new comprehensive cybersecurity framework mandates a strict six-hour window to report cyber incidents.

Explanation

The article explains that ITRI quantifies cyber readiness and turns it into something tangible, measurable, and benchmarkable, bringing boardroom accountability for cybersecurity.

Explanation

The article states that the Second Judges Case (1993) shifted primacy to the collectively formed opinion of the Chief Justice of India and senior judges, forming the core of the collegium system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the collegium is a judicial creation, not a constitutional one. Statement 2 is correct: the article notes that since November 28, 2024, resolutions have stopped naming participants or providing reasoning. Statement 3 is correct: the MediaOne judgment stated that sealed-cover secrecy is 'antithetical to a transparent and accountable system'.

Explanation

The article states: 'A broader assessment in 2025 found that nearly 30% of the Supreme Court judges — roughly 10 of 33 — had familial links to former judges.' The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article explicitly argues that reform does not require dismantling the collegium; it only requires modernizing it through a transparent framework that includes publishing anticipated vacancies, inviting applications, disclosing objective criteria, and recording reasoned recommendations. Options A and B are not supported; option D contradicts the entire article.

Explanation

The article mentions 'MoSPI’s survey data'. MoSPI stands for Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, which conducts the PLFS. The Ministry of Labour conducts other surveys but not PLFS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: private coaching cost share rose from 12.5% to 16%. Statement 2 is incorrect: undergraduate enrolment fell by 93,322 (not increased). Statement 3 is correct: manufacturing is at about a sixth (16%) of GVA. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states: 'only four had a salaried job with a contract and social security' out of every 100 graduates, i.e., 4%. The 26% figure refers to regular salaried employment (without necessarily having contract and social security).

Explanation

The article argues that the crisis is about absence of jobs, not just exam reform. It highlights manufacturing remaining at 16% of GVA and corporate investment falling to 10.3% of GDP as the core structural problems. Free coaching alone cannot address these.

Explanation

The Division Bench of Justices G.R. Swaminathan and V. Lakshminarayanan of the Madras High Court passed this ruling, as reported in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the non-obstante clauses in TANPID Act are in Sections 3 and 14, not Section 5. Statement 2 is correct as per the judgment. Statement 3 is correct as the Supreme Court in 2025 ruled similarly for the Maharashtra Act.

Explanation

The article states that there were 1,240 depositors of Viswapriya Limited, of which 34 had died. This is a key data point for prelims questions.

Explanation

The court highlighted that Sections 3 and 14 of TANPID Act begin with 'Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law...', giving them overriding effect, whereas Section 5 of PMLA lacks such a clause. This was the core legal reasoning.

Explanation

As per the Supreme Court judgments, the Collegium system (CJI + four senior-most judges) recommends appointments and transfers of High Court judges. The President formally appoints based on this recommendation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Justice Mehta wrote letters on Aug 2, 10, and 17. Statement 2 is correct: The article states he was appointed Acting CJ in September last year (2025). Statement 3 is incorrect: The CJI initially asked for a list of cases but did not take immediate action, prompting further letters.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Acting CJ is due to retire on September 26. Option A is the publication date, C is incorrect (he was appointed in Sep 2025), D is not mentioned.

Explanation

While Justice Mehta did request a regular Chief Justice, the core of his letters was the serious allegations of favouritism, bench shifting, humiliation of officers, and waste of public money by the Acting CJ. The article repeatedly uses terms like 'clear evidence of favouritism' and 'maladministration'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the symposium is hosted by the Federal Reserve Bank of Kansas City, held in Wyoming's Grand Teton National Park. This is a key static GK fact about major global economic events.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says US debt crossed $40 trillion, about 120% of GDP. Statement 2 is incorrect: bond buybacks increase demand, raising prices, which lowers yields (prices and yields move inversely). Statement 3 is correct: Japan held $1.12 trillion in US bonds as of June, the largest foreign holder.

Explanation

The article states that on August 17, the 30-year bond yield was 5.31% — the highest in almost 20 years. 4.64% was the 30-year yield on February 27, and 4.72% was the 10-year yield on August 17.

Explanation

The article states that the problem with Bessent's plan is 'markets' lack of confidence in it' and that the only long-term solution is a credible blueprint to improve government finances. The buyback was seen as a short-term fix, so yields fell initially but rose again the next day.

Explanation

The WMCC, established in 2012, is an institutional mechanism to manage border affairs, maintain peace, and coordinate responses between India and China along the Line of Actual Control. It is not an arbitration body, trade body, or military exercise framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 25th SR talks were in Beijing. Statement 2 is incorrect: the new hotlines are for the Eastern and Middle sectors, not the Western sector (which already had a mechanism). Statement 3 is correct: the 26th round is agreed for India in 2027. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that 'an additional two meeting points were agreed for holding the General Level Mechanism/Senior Highest Military Commander meeting (SHMC).' The other numbers are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the purpose is to 'resolve outstanding issues and avoid misunderstanding and miscalculation along the LAC.' While trade and pilgrimage are mentioned in other outcomes, the hotlines are specifically for military communication and de-escalation.

Explanation

John Ratcliffe served as the Director of the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) in 2026, the US civilian foreign intelligence service. The other options are distinct US intelligence and security agencies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article – Ratcliffe held talks with Russian intelligence. Statement 2 is false – he did not meet President Putin. Statement 3 is correct – Kremlin spokesman said such contacts are a positive thing, even during difficult periods. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article specifies that Ratcliffe held talks during his visit to Moscow on Tuesday, August 26, 2026. The Kremlin announced it on the same day. The other options are close distractors based on typical date confusion.

Explanation

The article notes that such contacts 'continue even during the most difficult periods in bilateral relations' and are considered positive. Historically, intelligence channels serve as backchannels to manage escalation risks (e.g., nuclear de-confliction). This is distinct from formal peace negotiations, which are diplomatic, not intelligence-led.

Explanation

The article states that the case originated from a DoPT letter of October 14, 2004, clarifying the 1993 Official Memorandum on creamy layer. DoPT is the nodal agency for personnel policy and recruitment for central civil services.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SC held salary income alone cannot determine creamy layer. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 'rules of the game' doctrine actually prohibits changing criteria mid-process. Statement 3 is correct: in Divjot Sekhon, the court declined to redraw the list to avoid unsettling settled matters.

Explanation

The article mentions that the top court set a six-month timeline (until September 11, 2026) for implementation of its verdict. This is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The Centre argued that CSE-2025 stood substantially concluded before the judgment (final result declared five days prior) and that applying the verdict retrospectively would create anomalies affecting training, allocation, and seniority. This aligns with the 'rules of the game' doctrine that protects settled processes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Bihar School Examination Board launched free JEE and NEET coaching in model schools, initially in 10 schools in Patna, later expanded to 155 schools. This is a static linkage to the state-level board responsible for school examinations in Bihar.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The platform is 24×7, free, and covers Classes 9-12. Statement 2 is correct: It covers 700 model schools, 38 districts, and 3 lakh students. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says the digital study material for JEE/NEET is provided for 'Classes 11 and 12 in the science stream', not just Class 12. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that 'Around 75,000 teachers are expected to provide personalised support through the platform.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article emphasises that the platform allows students to 'seek clarification while studying rather than depend only on classroom hours or scheduled doubt-solving sessions.' It is a supplementary support tool, not a replacement for classroom teaching or residential coaching. Option B best captures the core objective.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the judgment was delivered by the Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court on July 23, 2026. The other options are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says the court 'circumvented the decision of the Supreme Court' by using the deity concept. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court allowed ash immersion under specific conditions (unfired earthen pots). Statement 3 is correct: the court observed that pollution violated Section 24 of the Water Act. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'around 90 tonnes of clothes, two tonnes of ash and around three tonnes of other waste materials were collected from the river within a span of three weeks.' Therefore, 90 tonnes is the correct figure. Options A and B are for ash and other waste respectively, and D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the judges were particular about their stand that this conferment of 'legal personality' is solely to ensure that the river is not polluted.' The court also laid down stringent measures to prevent pollution. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that both India and Pakistan are signatories to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), which aims to conserve and use wetlands, especially transboundary ones like the Rann of Kutch.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the IWT was signed in 1960. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article says the treaty apportions a major portion of water to Pakistan from the western rivers, not to India. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions the US-Mexico Treaty of 1944 includes a provision of 75 million acre foot over 10 years. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'The provision prohibits the upper division states (in the U.S.) from causing the Colorado River flow at Lee Ferry to be depleted below 75 million acre foot during any consecutive 10-year period.' Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article repeatedly argues that the IWT should be revised to move beyond partition and adopt ERU principles, which offer flexibility to incorporate changing conditions related to climate change. This is a key theme throughout the piece.

Explanation

The article states that Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent announced the sanctions. The US Treasury Department is responsible for economic sanctions and financial enforcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Chinese Foreign Ministry spokesperson Lin Jian said cooperation is within international law. Statement 2 is incorrect: China did not threaten retaliatory sanctions; it said it would take necessary measures to safeguard its interests. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions China receives over 80% of Iranian oil, mostly through indirect channels.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Treasury Department penalised 'nearly 60 Iran-linked entities'. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article highlights that China is Iran's biggest trading partner and oil buyer, and the US must balance pressure on Iran with maintaining trade truce with China ahead of Xi's state visit. This is the core dilemma analysed by experts.

Explanation

A theatre command integrates all three services under one commander for a defined geographic area, enabling joint operations. This is distinct from functional commands or temporary task forces.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Ukraine's networked air defence denied Russia control. Statement 2 is incorrect: the campaign against Iran showed dominance without a decisive outcome. Statement 3 is correct: cheap drones force costly interceptors, as seen in Operation Sindoor.

Explanation

The article states the IAF has 460-520 combat aircraft against the PLAAF's roughly 65 squadrons. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The author argues theatre-isation does not dilute IAF flexibility but provides the command structure to ensure joint operations survive a crisis, preventing a scenario where a commander plans around air support that may not arrive.

Explanation

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the national space agency of India, responsible for space research, satellite development, and launch vehicle operations. The article mentions ISRO's LVM-3 and GSAT-N2.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's cost was $13,302/kg. Statement 2 is incorrect: China's cost was $5,809/kg, and the US (SpaceX) cost was $3,225/kg. Statement 3 is correct: SpaceX launched 75% of global payload. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states the global average as $3,868 per kg. $3,225 is the US cost, $5,809 is China's cost, and $13,302 is India's cost.

Explanation

The editorial states: 'The value of India's space sector can no longer rely on aura but in jobs, in long-term capital and the tax revenues that follow.' While cost reduction and self-reliance are important, the core argument is economic sustainability through commercial viability.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA) estimated the flow decline. The IEA is mentioned for refinery runs, not for Hormuz flow data. OPEC and IMF are not directly involved in this estimate.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: scenario with resumed tanker traffic gives Brent $80-95. Statement 2 is correct: prolonged impasse gives $95-110. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article says a wider escalation could push Brent to $110-130, not $130-150. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'Brent crude was trading at $90.46 a barrel on Tuesday.' $82.43 is the WTI price, and $101.40 is Murban crude. $95.00 is not mentioned. Hence option B is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Replacing a nearby Gulf barrel with crude from the Atlantic Basin means longer voyages, greater tanker requirements, higher freight and more working capital.' It also notes that refinery flexibility cannot eliminate geography. Other options are not supported by the text.

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz lies between Iran to the north and Oman to the south. Both countries are directly involved in managing the waterway, as seen in their recent talks.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the joint statement mentioned a 'joint temporary navigational corridor'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the US and Israel attacked Iran, not Oman. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: Trump threatened to bomb Oman. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states 'About a fifth of the world's traded oil passed through the strait' which is equivalent to 20%. The other options are common distractors for other chokepoints.

Explanation

The joint statement explicitly says the framework includes a 'joint temporary navigational corridor' and both countries working to clear mines. The goal is to manage shipping and ensure safe passage, not military or coercive measures.

Explanation

Article 317(2) empowers the Governor to suspend a member of a State Public Service Commission pending a reference to the Supreme Court for removal on grounds of misbehaviour or incapacity. Article 317(1) deals with removal by the President after a Supreme Court inquiry. Article 324 relates to the Election Commission, and Article 315 establishes the Public Service Commissions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Governor's power to suspend under Article 317(2) is not discretionary and requires the aid and advice of the Cabinet, as held by the High Court. Statement 2 is correct: the High Court quashed the first suspension because it was made without Cabinet advice. Statement 3 is correct: the second suspension followed Cabinet clearance on Friday.

Explanation

According to the article, the Governor directed the senior-most member of the KPSC, B. Prabhudev, to act as the Chairman until further orders. Gyanendra Kumar Gangwar is a former IAS officer and former Controller of Examination in KPSC, not the senior-most member. Shivashankarappa S. Sahukar is the suspended Chairman, and Thaawarchand Gehlot is the Governor.

Explanation

The High Court quashed the first suspension because the Governor acted without the aid and advice of the Cabinet. While Article 163 gives the Governor some discretionary functions, the suspension of a SPSC member under Article 317(2) is not one of them. The Governor must act on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers in such matters.

Explanation

The news article states that the committee is chaired by Montek Singh Ahluwalia. C. Joseph Vijay is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, Anoop Singh is the author of the op-ed and a former member of the 15th Finance Commission, and N.K. Singh is the former chairman of the 15th Finance Commission (but not mentioned in this article).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the committee is to recommend measures to strengthen own-tax and non-tax revenues, improve buoyancy, plug leakages, and increase fiscal self-reliance. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article explicitly states that proceeds from outright asset sales generally do not count as revenue under IMF GFSM 2014. Statement 3 is correct: own-tax revenue fell from 9.3% of GSDP in 2002-03 to 6.2% in 2024-25.

Explanation

The article states 'Tamil Nadu's own-tax revenue was budgeted at around 6.2% of GSDP in 2024-25'. 9.3% was the figure for 2002-03, 6.9% for Karnataka, and 8.2% for Telangana in 2024-25.

Explanation

The op-ed's central argument is that Tamil Nadu should become the first Indian state to explicitly adopt IMF GFSM 2014 for defining and presenting government revenue, separating genuine revenue (taxes, fees, royalties) from borrowing and asset sales (which are financing). This is presented as more fundamental than simply raising more revenue through rates or privatization.

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, which comes under the Prime Minister, formulates policies pertaining to recruitment, regulation of service conditions, and deputation of personnel. The Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under this ministry oversees recruitment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UPSC selects Group A and Group B civil servants. Statement 2 is incorrect: SSC carries out recruitments for non-gazetted Group B jobs and non-technical Group C positions, not Group A. Statement 3 is correct: The Railways is the largest central government employer with over 12 lakh employees.

Explanation

The article states that the largest SSC examination was the Multi-Tasking Staff (Non-Technical) and Havaldar Examination which saw 55.99 lakh candidates appearing at 279 venues in 130 cities. 2.05 crore is the total number of candidates across all 20 SSC exams in 2024-25, and 83,857 is the number recruited from that 55.99 lakh.

Explanation

The article emphasizes job security (once probation cleared, guaranteed employment till retirement), salary structured by Pay Commissions with Dearness Allowance linked to inflation, and fixed working hours without aggressive targets. It also mentions that during Covid-19, private companies cut salaries while government employees continued full pay.

Explanation

The Atomic Energy Act mandates that civil nuclear agreements (123 agreements) be submitted to Congress for a 90-day review period. The other options are not directly related to this requirement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the agreement was signed by US Energy Secretary Chris Wright and his Saudi counterpart. Statement 2 is incorrect because the document is classified at a high level. Statement 3 is correct: unless Congress passes a joint resolution rejecting the agreement during the 90-day review, it can take effect. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Congress has 90 days while in session to review the agreement. The other options are common distractors for similar review periods in other contexts.

Explanation

The article states that Trump insisted on requiring the Saudis to normalise relations with Israel through the Abraham Accords as part of the pact. This condition links the nuclear deal to broader regional normalization efforts.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the NDB represents an alternative paradigm for development finance within the expanded BRICS+ coalition. The NDB was originally established by BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions India's role in establishing the Global Biofuel Alliance. Statement 2 is correct: The article gives the MDB target of $120 billion per year by 2030. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article says BRICS+ has over 40% of global GDP.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "MDBs expect to provide only about $120 billion a year in climate finance to low- and middle-income countries by 2030." The other options are plausible distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article describes the twin-track approach as: first, recapitalizing the NDB to offer innovative solutions like local currency financing; second, creating exclusive green development mechanisms for the Global South. The other options are not supported by the text.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the constitutional body responsible for all electoral roll revisions, including SIR. State CEOs act under its supervision.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (1.08 crore deletions, 19.5% reduction). Statement 2 is incorrect – the article explicitly states the EC did not release the EP ratio. Statement 3 is correct – five constituencies (Bommanahalli, Dasarahalli, B.T.M Layout, Vijayanagar, C.V. Raman Nagar) had >50% deletions.

Explanation

The article states that only 15.2% of deletions in Karnataka were due to death. In contrast, Tamil Nadu had 27.6% deletions marked as 'Deceased'. 19.5% is the overall reduction rate, and 54.8% is the deletion percentage in Bommanahalli constituency.

Explanation

The article highlights that Karnataka's CEO did not host deletion lists in a searchable format, did not provide old booth numbers, and withheld gender-wise deletion data. This lack of transparency is the main concern, unlike other states.

Explanation

The article identifies FSSAI as India's food-safety regulator. IFBA is an industry lobby, the Supreme Court is the judiciary, and the George Institute is a research body — none are food regulators.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct — FSSAI proposed a black-and-white table after abandoning colourful warnings. Statement 2 is a trap: FSSAI told the court in August that it was 'difficult' to match international standards. Statement 3 is correct — SC had in February suggested examining Israel's red-and-green messaging system.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that a Lancet study projects 450 million Indians could be obese or overweight by 2050. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article says executives argued that warning labels were confusing and ineffective, and urged regulators to focus on encouraging portion control. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article quotes IMF Managing Director Kristalina Georgieva. The IMF is the key international organization focused on global monetary cooperation and financial stability, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as explicitly stated in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the AI boom was described as starting as a 'U.S. phenomenon' and is now global, not a European shock. Statement 3 is correct as the IMF's next growth revision is scheduled for mid-October in Bangkok.

Explanation

The article states: 'In July, the IMF lowered its 2026 global growth forecast to 3%'. This is the specific data point to remember for Prelims.

Explanation

The article directly quotes Kristalina Georgieva stating that the net impact is asymmetric and depends on these three factors. This tests understanding of the nuanced, varied impact of global economic forces on different nations.

Explanation

As per the article, the Municipal Administration and Urban Development Department issued G.O.Ms. No. 166 on August 7, 2026, formally notifying the policy. This department is responsible for urban governance and infrastructure in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Cabinet approval was on August 6, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: the minimum clear walking space is 2 metres, not 1.5 metres. Statement 3 is correct: the policy gives preference to safe at-grade crossings. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'As many as 35,221 pedestrians were killed in road accidents across India in 2023, accounting for 20.4% of all road fatalities.' The other options are close distractors; 25,221 is too low, while 45,221 and 55,221 are higher than the actual figure.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the policy 'represents a shift away from the traditional vehicle-centric approach to road development towards people-centric urban spaces.' Options A, C, and D are contrary to the policy's focus on pedestrian safety and universal accessibility.

Explanation

The proposal was made by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, hence the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal ministry. The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomatic relations, but the specific trade and startup initiative falls under Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly says 'on the lines of the popular 'Shark Tank' format'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the corridor is for 'not only for mature unicorns but particularly early-stage funding'. Statement 3 is correct as the Minister said 'such pitching sessions could be organised virtually'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states the proposal was made on Wednesday, August 26, 2026. The other dates are close distractors. This is a direct factual question likely for Prelims.

Explanation

The article quotes Goyal saying the corridor is for 'larger pools of patient capital, not only for mature unicorns but particularly early-stage funding'. While technology transfer may be a secondary benefit, the core objective is capital provision. Options C and D are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

FSSAI is a statutory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the news article states FSSAI is tightening rules on claims like '100% Pure'. Statement 2 is correct because Bournvita's marketing has been linked to children's nutrition. Statement 3 is incorrect because FSSAI regulations are mandatory for all food businesses in India.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions Bournvita as occupying a sensitive space because its marketing has historically been closely associated with children's nutrition.

Explanation

The core purpose is consumer protection. By requiring scientific evidence for claims like '100% Pure' or health endorsements, FSSAI aims to prevent false advertising and help consumers make informed choices.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the El Niño is one of the most predictable modes of natural variability, with prediction accuracy of about 80%. The other modes are also important climate drivers but are not highlighted in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says models predicted the El Niño and a deficit >10%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the monsoon prediction skill is about 60%, not 80% (80% is for El Niño). Statement 3 is correct: June had a 40% deficit and July was 1% above normal. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the 2023 monsoon final seasonal total was 94% of the long-period average, which essentially validated the forecasts. The other options are close distractors but not the figure mentioned.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that while the seasonal deficit was predicted, the real concern is the unprecedented intra-seasonal swings (June deficit, July recovery) and local-scale deficits that models failed to capture even days in advance. These directly hurt farmers. Options A and C are incorrect as the El Niño was predicted and the deficit was not overestimated. Option D is incorrect because the onset delay was predicted and did occur.

Explanation

The article states that State Department spokesperson Tommy Pigott issued the statement announcing the sanctions. Although the Treasury Secretary announced the operation, the designation was communicated by the State Department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the State Department designated the firms under E.O. 13846. Statement 2 is incorrect because four Indian companies were sanctioned, not just one. Statement 3 is correct: Treasury Secretary Scott Bessent said the operation aims to choke off Tehran's finances. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Sadashiva Overseas imported Iranian-origin petroleum products worth around $119 million. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article quotes Treasury Secretary Bessent stating the operation is an 'unprecedented push to choke off Tehran's finances' and the State Department spokesperson linked it to Iran's attacks on US forces and terrorism financing. The other options are not supported by the article content.

Explanation

The article states that the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) proposed the fee via a formal rulemaking process. USCIS, which processes H-1B petitions, is an agency under DHS. The Department of State handles visa issuance at embassies, but the fee proposal originates from DHS.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the fee applies only to cap-subject petitions, not to cap-exempt ones (universities, non-profits). Statement 2 is correct: the court ruled the $100,000 fee was a tax requiring Congressional approval. Statement 3 is correct: DHS estimates $8.8 billion annually based on 85,000 petitions.

Explanation

The article cites USCIS data showing that people born in India accounted for 71% of all approved H-1B petitions in FY2024. The other options are close distractors; 61% and 81% are not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article states that DHS says a six-figure charge would make employers less likely to choose an H-1B worker over a qualified American unless they genuinely need specialized skills. While revenue generation is mentioned ($8.8 billion), the primary labor-market objective is to protect American workers. Options C and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The order was passed by the Karnataka High Court, specifically Justice Vijaykumar A Patil, as mentioned in the article. The court directed the state government to frame the scheme within three months.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court directed the state to formulate an interim compensation scheme within three months. Statement 2 is incorrect because BNS Section 103(2) applies to grounds like race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief, etc., not limited to SC/ST. Statement 3 is correct as the court reiterated the SC's Tehseen Poonawalla guidelines requiring victim's kin to be heard.

Explanation

The article states that the alleged lynching incident took place on April 27, 2025. The FIR was registered on April 28, 2025, and the chargesheet was filed on July 25, 2025. The court order was passed on August 20, 2026.

Explanation

The court found that the existing government order lacked provision for interim compensation. The directive aims to give immediate financial support to victims or their families pending final compensation, as a measure to address the impact of mob violence on victims' livelihoods and dignity.

Explanation

The article lists seven high-density routes: Delhi-Howrah, Howrah-Chennai, Chennai-Mumbai, Mumbai-Delhi, Delhi-Chennai, Mumbai-Howrah, and Delhi-Guwahati. Mumbai-Bengaluru is not among them.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Kavach 4.0 covers 2,490 route km as per the Rajya Sabha reply. Statement 2 is incorrect: Kavach is an indigenously developed system, not imported. Statement 3 is correct: the two corridors are Delhi-Mumbai and Delhi-Howrah. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Indian Railways plans to four-lane around 11,000 km of its high-density network. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the four-laning aims to 'expand train capacity and ease congestion on key routes' and improve movement of passenger and freight trains. Other options are not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The New Development Bank (NDB) was established by BRICS in 2014 to finance infrastructure and sustainable development projects. It is the grouping's most tangible institutional achievement, as highlighted in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India hosts the 18th Summit on Sept 12-13, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect: The May 2026 FM meeting failed to issue a joint communiqué due to Iran-UAE differences, concluding with a Chair's Statement instead. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: BRICS accounts for 45% population and 37% GDP (PPP).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that BRICS accounts for 37% of global GDP (PPP). The 45% figure refers to the world population share, which is a common distractor.

Explanation

The article describes the digital BRICS Technology Cooperation Exchange as a clearing house to match technologies from any BRICS member with the development needs of any Global South country, with NDB financing where appropriate. This is designed to move BRICS beyond declarations toward scalable, transaction-based partnerships.

Explanation

Defense procurement falls under the Ministry of Defence, which oversees the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. The Ministry of External Affairs handles diplomatic agreements, but the actual procurement is executed by the Ministry of Defence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: LMM has a triple-effect warhead and proximity fuse. Statement 2 is incorrect because the range is over 6 km, not 10 km. Statement 3 is correct: it can be shoulder-launched, tripod, or vehicle-mounted. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the missiles weigh 13 kg. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news. This is a direct factual question for prelims.

Explanation

The IGA aims to develop Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) for warships over 6,000 tonnes, starting with LPDs. It includes co-design and co-production, aligning with Atmanirbhar Bharat. While cost and speed are secondary benefits, the core objective is technological development and modernization.

Explanation

UNCERD is the treaty body that monitors ICERD. The other options are different UN human rights bodies. The article specifically mentions UNCERD as the committee that flagged concerns.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions concerns about violations against Scheduled Tribes, Scheduled Castes, and Rohingya refugees. Statement 2 is incorrect because the report criticized the NRC, not praised it. Statement 3 is correct as the report called for suspension of NRC and review of legislative framework. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the inter-ministerial delegation was led by the Solicitor General of India, Tushar Mehta. Randhir Jaiswal is the MEA spokesperson who made the rejection statement, but did not lead the delegation.

Explanation

The MEA spokesperson said India rejects 'any politically motivated highly malicious references' and the delegation rejected 'sweeping generalisations, unsubstantiated allegations'. While not explicitly stating procedural flaws, the overall rejection implies the report exceeded its mandate. Option D best captures the essence.

Explanation

The article states that NPCIL implements PHWR-based nuclear power projects and currently operates all of India's 8.7 GWe nuclear capacity. BARC is a research centre, DAE is the parent department, and CEA is an advisory body on electricity planning.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the SHANTI Act was enacted in December 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: all current capacity is operated by NPCIL, not private companies. Statement 3 is correct: the CEA roadmap targets 100 GWe by 2047. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Indian reactors cost around Rs 18 crore per MWe. Rs 34 crore is the cost for Russian reactors, while French and US reactors cost much more.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that PHWRs are the most cost-effective option at Rs 18 crore/MWe and benefit from a mature domestic supply chain, established design standards, and an ecosystem of vendors—making them the preferred choice for the initial phase of nuclear expansion.