31 August 2026, Questions & Answers
92 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
92 questions · 0 topics covered · 19 min revision
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This page contains 92 current affairs questions with answers from 31 August 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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92 QsWhich constitutional body approved the Semicon 2.0 scheme?
- A.Union Cabinet✓ Correct Answer
- B.Parliament
- C.National Security Council
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the Semicon 2.0 scheme was approved by the Union Cabinet on July 15, 2026. The Union Cabinet is the highest decision-making body of the government, headed by the Prime Minister.
Consider the following statements:
1. Semicon 2.0 provides 40% fiscal support for silicon fabs.
2. Startups receive financial support only in the form of grant.
3. The scheme was notified on August 31, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: silicon fabs get 40% fiscal support. Statement 2 is incorrect because startups get both grant and equity co-investment, not just grant. Statement 3 is correct: the notification was issued on August 31, 2026. Hence option C is correct.
What percentage of capex incentive is provided for advanced packaging (ATMP) under Semicon 2.0?
- A.25%
- B.30%
- C.35%✓ Correct Answer
- D.40%
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Explanation
The article specifies that advanced packaging (ATMP) gets an incentive of 35% of capex. Conventional packaging gets 25%, while silicon fabs get 40% fiscal support. 30% is not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the Semicon 2.0 scheme as stated in the news?
- A.To increase foreign direct investment in the electronics sector
- B.To achieve self-reliance and foster a globally competitive semiconductor ecosystem✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the import of mobile phones by 50%
- D.To develop artificial intelligence chips exclusively
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Explanation
The article quotes IT Secretary S. Krishnan saying the objective is 'self reliance and fostering a globally competitive industry'. While FDI and reduced imports are secondary benefits, the core goal is building a full-stack semiconductor ecosystem within India.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the formulation and implementation of India's sugar policy, including pricing, releases, and imports?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
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Explanation
The Department of Food and Public Distribution under this ministry handles sugar policy, including the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane, sugar release orders, and import/export controls. The article mentions the government controls sugar imports and exports, which falls under this ministry's purview.
Consider the following statements regarding the sugar and ethanol situation in India as described in the article:
1. The all-India modal retail price of sugar increased by about 44% from July 24 to August 24, 2026.
2. The government had initially estimated sugar production for 2025-26 at 34.3 MT, which was later revised to 30.6 MT due to pest damage.
3. The ethanol blending programme diverted 2.75 MT of sugar, and the article recommends maintaining this diversion to ensure fuel security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article states the price climbed from Rs 45/kg to Rs 65/kg, a 44% increase. Statement 2 is correct: initial estimate of 34.3 MT revised to 30.6 MT due to red rot and top borer. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article recommends reducing sugar-based ethanol, not maintaining the diversion, to protect food security.
According to the article, what was the all-India modal retail price of sugar on August 24, 2026?
- A.Rs 45 per kg
- B.Rs 55 per kg
- C.Rs 65 per kg✓ Correct Answer
- D.Rs 75 per kg
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the price climbed from Rs 45/kg on July 24 to about Rs 65/kg by August 24, a 44% increase. Option A is the price on July 24. Options B and D are not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the ethanol blending programme in India, as per the context of the article?
- A.To reduce sugar surplus and stabilize sugar prices
- B.To promote renewable energy and reduce crude oil imports✓ Correct Answer
- C.To provide an alternative market for maize farmers
- D.To reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the transport sector
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Explanation
The article discusses 'Atmanirbharta in fuel' and the ethanol programme as a way to reduce dependence on oil imports. While reducing emissions is a co-benefit, the primary objective is energy security. The article also notes that the programme competed with food markets, indicating its focus on fuel self-reliance.
Which organization is responsible for maintaining Indian Standard Time (IST)?
- A.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- B.National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
- C.CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (CSIR-NPL)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kanpur
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article, IST is maintained by the CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (CSIR-NPL). ISRO provides traceability via satellite links, but NPL is the primary custodian.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'One Nation, One Time' initiative:
1. The Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026, make IST compulsory for all legal and commercial purposes.
2. The Rules mandate the use of foreign satellite-based time sources like GPS for synchronization.
3. The initiative aims to reduce India's reliance on foreign time sources for national security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Rules make IST the single reference for legal, administrative, and commercial purposes. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Rules actually reduce dependence on foreign time sources like GPS and promote indigenous sources like NavIC. Statement 3 is correct as the policy enhances national security by eliminating reliance on foreign time sources.
What is the precision level of Indian Standard Time (IST) as disseminated by CSIR-NPL?
- A.Millisecond to microsecond accuracy✓ Correct Answer
- B.Nanosecond accuracy
- C.Picosecond accuracy
- D.Second accuracy
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Explanation
The article states that IST is disseminated with millisecond to microsecond accuracy via NTP servers. While ISRO gets nanosecond accuracy via satellite links, the general dissemination is at the millisecond level.
What is the primary objective of the 'One Nation, One Time' initiative?
- A.To promote the use of GPS for time synchronization
- B.To ensure accurate and consistent time across critical infrastructure for better coordination and national security✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish multiple time zones in India
- D.To replace the Indian Standard Time with Coordinated Universal Time
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Explanation
The initiative aims to synchronize systems like banking, railways, telecom, and power grids using a single, accurate time reference (IST). This improves coordination and reduces vulnerabilities from foreign time sources, enhancing national security.
Which High Court delivered the judgment allowing a child to claim reservation benefits through their mother's nativity?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Madras High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Puducherry High Court
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Explanation
The judgment was delivered by Justice D Bharatha Chakravarthy of the Madras High Court. Puducherry does not have its own High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Madras High Court.
Consider the following statements regarding the Madras High Court judgment on reservation:
1. The court ruled that a child can claim SC/MBC/OBC status through their mother's nativity when both parents belong to the same community.
2. The court upheld the Puducherry administration's argument that caste must be traced patrilineally due to patriarchal society.
3. The judgment relied on the Supreme Court's ruling in Rameshbhai Dabhai Naik v State of Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court allowed claims based on the mother's nativity. Statement 2 is incorrect because the court rejected the patriarchal argument, calling it a misogynistic stereotype. Statement 3 is correct as the court examined and applied the SC's ruling in Rameshbhai Dabhai Naik v State of Gujarat.
How many petitions were heard by the Madras High Court in this case concerning community certificates and reservation benefits in Puducherry?
- A.18
- B.28✓ Correct Answer
- C.38
- D.48
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Explanation
Justice D Bharatha Chakravarthy was hearing a batch of 28 petitions concerning community certificates and reservation benefits in education and employment under the Puducherry administration.
What is the primary constitutional principle underlying the Madras High Court's decision to allow reservation claims through the mother's nativity?
- A.That the child should inherit the father's caste to maintain social order
- B.That reservation benefits are based on social disadvantage, not patrilineal lineage✓ Correct Answer
- C.That the Puducherry administration has absolute discretion to decide caste tracing
- D.That the mother's nativity is irrelevant if the father is a migrant
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Explanation
The court held that the basis of reservation is social disadvantage and the sufferings and stigma attached to the child, not whether lineage is patrilineal or matrilineal. This aligns with the constitutional goal of substantive equality under Articles 14, 15, and 16.
Which international body issued the ruling that the Indus Waters Treaty remains fully in force?
- A.International Court of Justice
- B.Permanent Court of Arbitration✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Security Council
- D.World Bank
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Explanation
The article states that the Permanent Court of Arbitration at The Hague ruled on the treaty. The other options are common distractors: ICJ is a different court, UNSC is political, World Bank mediated the treaty but did not issue this ruling.
Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT):
1. India announced the treaty would be held in abeyance after the Pahalgam terror attack in April 2025.
2. The Court of Arbitration was formalized in 2025 on Pakistan's request.
3. India participated in the proceedings of the Court of Arbitration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions abeyance after Pahalgam attack on April 23, 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Court was formalized in 2023, not 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect: India has never participated in its proceedings and rejects them as null and void.
On which date did India announce that the Indus Waters Treaty would be held in abeyance?
- A.August 31, 2026
- B.April 23, 2025✓ Correct Answer
- C.July 2023
- D.May 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that India announced the treaty would be held in abeyance on April 23, 2025, following the Pahalgam terror attack. The other dates are distractors: August 31, 2026 is the ruling date, July 2023 is when the court was formalized, and May 2026 is when India reiterated its position on a previous award.
Why did India reject the jurisdiction of the Permanent Court of Arbitration in this case?
- A.The court was illegally constituted and its proceedings run parallel to the treaty-consistent Neutral Expert process.✓ Correct Answer
- B.India wanted to renegotiate the treaty and the court refused to consider that.
- C.The court's rulings favored Pakistan on all technical questions.
- D.India had already unilaterally terminated the treaty and the court had no authority.
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Explanation
The article states India's consistent position that the Court of Arbitration is illegally constituted and that the treaty does not provide for parallel proceedings. India maintained the Neutral Expert process (appointed by World Bank) was the appropriate mechanism. Options B and C are not mentioned; D is incorrect because India did not terminate the treaty but put it in abeyance.
Which ministry/department released the GDP growth data for Q1 FY26-27?
- A.Reserve Bank of India
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states that the data was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The RBI provides forecasts but does not release GDP data.
Consider the following statements regarding India's GDP data for Q1 FY26-27:
1. Real GDP growth was 7.8%, above RBI's forecast of 7.0%.
2. The manufacturing sector grew by 10% in the quarter.
3. Nominal GDP growth was 10.3%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Real GDP growth was 7.8% vs RBI forecast of 7.0%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Manufacturing grew 9.2%, not 10%. Statement 3 is correct: Nominal GDP growth was 10.3%.
What was the Reserve Bank of India's GDP growth forecast for Q1 FY26-27?
- A.6.9%
- B.7.0%✓ Correct Answer
- C.7.8%
- D.8.6%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the RBI forecast was 7.0% for the April-June quarter. The actual growth of 7.8% beat this forecast.
According to the article, which factor contributed to the strong GVA growth of 8.2% despite the Middle East crisis?
- A.Increase in net indirect taxes
- B.Sharp increase in net public-sector subsidies✓ Correct Answer
- C.Fall in corporate earnings
- D.Decrease in energy prices
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Explanation
Economist Madhavi Arora noted that the stronger GVA growth reflected a sharp increase in net public-sector subsidies, which outpaced growth in net indirect taxes. This helped cushion the impact of higher input costs.
Which ministry published the draft Central Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Rules, 2026 mandating V2V communication system?
- A.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- B.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- D.Ministry of Communications
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Explanation
The article states that the Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) published the draft rules on July 22, 2026. MoRTH is the nodal ministry for vehicle regulations and road safety in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Vehicle-to-Vehicle (V2V) communication system:
1. V2V uses Cellular Vehicle-to-Everything (C-V2X) technology in the 5.875-5.925 GHz frequency band.
2. The On Board Unit (OBU) for V2V costs between Rs 10,000 and Rs 12,000.
3. The Department of Telecommunications exempted the frequency band from licensing requirements on June 10, 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as V2V uses C-V2X in 5.875-5.925 GHz. Statement 2 is incorrect – the article states OBU cost is Rs 5,000 to Rs 7,000, not Rs 10k-12k. Statement 3 is correct – DoT exempted the band on June 10, 2026. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the maximum range of the V2V communication system?
- A.100 metres
- B.200 metres
- C.300 metres✓ Correct Answer
- D.500 metres
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Usually, V2V systems have a range of 300 metres and can detect vehicles in this range.' The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the article.
What is the primary objective of mandating the V2V communication system in India?
- A.To reduce traffic congestion and improve fuel efficiency
- B.To reduce road accidents and fatalities by warning drivers of risks beyond line of sight✓ Correct Answer
- C.To enable autonomous driving without human intervention
- D.To collect data for urban planning and infrastructure development
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Explanation
The article highlights that road deaths rose to 1.83 lakh in 2025, and V2V is a road-safety intervention to alert drivers about sudden braking, black spots, obstacles, etc., beyond line of sight. While other benefits may exist, the core objective is accident reduction.
Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls?
- A.Supreme Court
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Law Commission
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article mentions 'Election Commission's Special Intensive Revision (SIR)'. The Election Commission is the constitutional body under Article 324 responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections and electoral rolls in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls:
1. The SIR was launched in Bihar in June 2025.
2. Delhi recorded the highest deletion rate of 33%.
3. The Supreme Court upheld the SIR order in May 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: 'The EC had started the SIR with Bihar in June last year' (2025). Statement 2 is incorrect: Delhi's deletion rate was 32.8%, not 33% (though the article title says 33% left out, the body states 32.8%). Statement 3 is correct: 'The Supreme Court upheld the SIR order in its judgment in May this year' (2026). Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the total number of names deleted from draft rolls across all three phases of the SIR?
- A.13.37 crore✓ Correct Answer
- B.6.15 crore
- C.14.1 crore
- D.9.78 crore
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Explanation
The article states: 'So far, the SIR has led to the deletion of 13.37 crore names in the draft rolls across the three phases'. 6.15 crore is only the third phase, 14.1% is the percentage deletion, and 9.78 crore is the pre-SIR elector count in Maharashtra.
What is the primary objective of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?
- A.To increase voter turnout
- B.To eliminate duplicate and ineligible entries from electoral rolls✓ Correct Answer
- C.To introduce electronic voting
- D.To reduce the number of constituencies
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Explanation
The SIR required all electors to submit fresh enumeration forms and documents to establish eligibility. The article highlights deletions due to deceased, shifted, and multiple enrolments, indicating the objective is to clean the rolls of ineligible electors, not to increase turnout or introduce e-voting.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the experimental monetary asset accounts of marine fish resources as per the article?
- A.Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that MoSPI is beginning the experimental monetary valuation of marine fish resources. MoSPI is the nodal ministry for statistics, not fisheries or environment.
Consider the following statements:
1. India's total fish production in FY25 was 19.77 million metric tonnes, with 77% from the marine sector.
2. The UN SEEA framework is used for compiling environmental-economic accounts, and only a handful of countries have implemented monetary asset accounts for aquatic resources.
3. NITI Aayog estimates India's EEZ resource potential at 7.16 MMT, warning of overexploitation of deep-sea resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the article says 77% of fish production was from inland and 23% from marine, not 77% marine. Statement 2 is correct: only a handful of countries compile monetary asset accounts for aquatic resources. Statement 3 is correct as per NITI Aayog's estimate and warning.
What was the value of marine product exports from India in FY25 according to the article?
- A.₹62,408.45 crores✓ Correct Answer
- B.₹1.76 lakh crore
- C.₹2,500 crore
- D.₹2,761.8 crore
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Explanation
The article states that in FY25, export of marine products was 1.7 MMT, valued at ₹62,408.45 crores. The other options are related but incorrect: ₹1.76 lakh crore is the sector's contribution to GVA, ₹2,500 crore is PMMSY allocation, and ₹2,761.8 crore is total annual support for PMMSY.
What is the primary purpose of assigning monetary value to marine fish stocks under the new accounting framework?
- A.To increase fish exports and earn foreign exchange
- B.To assess the sustainability of fish stocks and inform policy decisions✓ Correct Answer
- C.To calculate the exact GDP contribution of the fishing sector
- D.To attract foreign investment in the blue economy
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Explanation
The article's bottomline states that the real test is whether the valuation improves policy on better catch limits, sustainable harvesting, stronger coastal livelihoods, and a clearer estimate of changes in national wealth. The primary objective is sustainability assessment, not just export or GDP calculation.
According to the article, which year is considered the first census for the Indian subcontinent?
- A.1872✓ Correct Answer
- B.1881
- C.1951
- D.1961
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Explanation
The article states that '1872 census is considered to be the first for the Indian subcontinent, though it covered only the tracts under British rule.'
Consider the following statements:
1. The Census 2027 will have 13 new or modified questions compared to the 2011 Census.
2. The question on father's name was also part of the 2011 Census schedule.
3. The uniform houselisting schedule was introduced in the 1961 Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions '13 new or modified questions compared with the 2011 Census.' Statement 2 is incorrect: the father/mother questions were part of the 2020 NPR schedule, not the 2011 Census. Statement 3 is correct: the article notes 'the introduction of a uniform houselisting schedule in 1961.' Hence option C is correct.
In which census year was the category 'transgender person' formally adopted according to the article?
- A.2001
- B.2011✓ Correct Answer
- C.2021
- D.2027
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Explanation
The article states: 'the recognition of a category other than male and female in 2011, and the subsequent adoption of the category "transgender person"'. Hence 2011 is the correct answer.
Which of the following developments in the census questionnaire is NOT mentioned in the article?
- A.Introduction of questions on household assets in 2001
- B.Inclusion of caste enumeration in colonial censuses
- C.Expansion of slum population enumeration in 2001
- D.Removal of the religion question after 1951✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article mentions household assets in 2001, caste in colonial censuses, and slum enumeration in 2001. However, it does not mention any removal of the religion question. In fact, religion continues to be enumerated in the census. Hence D is the correct answer.
Which caste community is the Maratha activist trying to claim recognition for to access OBC reservation?
- A.Maratha
- B.Kunbi✓ Correct Answer
- C.Dhangar
- D.Mali
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Explanation
The article states that the demand is for Kunbi recognition, as Kunbi is a community already listed under OBC in Maharashtra. The other options are either the claimant community (Maratha) or other OBC sub-castes not mentioned.
Consider the following statements regarding the Maratha quota issue:
1. Manoj Jarange set a deadline of September 12 for the government to accept his demands.
2. The Maharashtra government has unconditionally accepted all demands of the Maratha community.
3. Deputy CM Eknath Shinde stated that the government and Mr. Jarange are on the same page regarding farmer support.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the article explicitly mentions the September 12 deadline. Statement 2 is false because the government only hinted at willingness to discuss 'legally valid' demands, not unconditional acceptance. Statement 3 is correct as per Shinde's rally speech. Hence option C is correct.
According to activist Manoj Jarange, how many Kunbi genealogical records have been found for the Maratha community?
- A.50 lakh
- B.58 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.60 lakh
- D.48 lakh
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Explanation
The article states: 'Jarange has claimed that 58 lakh records were found of the Kunbi genealogical link of Marathas.' The other options are plausible distractors.
What is the primary objective of the Maratha community's demand for Kunbi recognition?
- A.To get reservation under the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) quota
- B.To get reservation under the Other Backward Classes (OBC) quota✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a separate Maratha reservation category
- D.To obtain financial compensation for past agitation deaths
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that Kunbi is an OBC community in Maharashtra, and the Maratha demand is to be recognized as Kunbi to avail OBC benefits in education and jobs. Options A, C, and D are either not the primary objective or not fully aligned with the demand.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the compilation and release of India's GDP data?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Economic Affairs
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Explanation
GDP data in India is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), which functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, not statistical releases.
Consider the following statements regarding India's GDP growth for Q1 FY27:
1. The GDP growth rate was 7.8%, which is higher than the 6.9% recorded in Q1 of the previous financial year.
2. The manufacturing sector grew at 9.2%, which was a three-quarter high.
3. The mining and quarrying sector grew by 2.4% during the quarter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: GDP growth was 7.8% in Q1 FY27 vs 6.9% in Q1 FY26. Statement 2 is correct: manufacturing grew 9.2%, a three-quarter high. Statement 3 is incorrect: mining and quarrying contracted by 2.4%, not grew. Hence option C is correct.
What was the growth rate of the services sector (tertiary sector) in Q1 FY27 as reported in the article?
- A.8.0%
- B.9.2%
- C.10.0%✓ Correct Answer
- D.12.1%
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Explanation
The article states that the tertiary sector cumulatively grew 10% in Q1 FY27 compared to 8% in the same quarter of the previous year. 12.1% is the growth of the sub-category 'Financial, Real Estate, IT & Professional Services'.
What is the primary reason cited by economists for the expected slowdown in GDP growth from Q2 FY27 onwards?
- A.Decline in manufacturing output due to global recession
- B.Deficient south-west monsoon and unfavourable base effects✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reduction in government capital expenditure
- D.Rise in crude oil prices impacting trade deficit
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Explanation
The article quotes an economist warning that a deficient monsoon (El Niño) poses downside risks to agriculture and rural demand, and unfavourable base effects will weigh on growth from Q2. The other options are not explicitly mentioned as primary reasons.
Who is the current US Treasury Secretary who urged G20 countries to consider more trade barriers on China?
- A.Janet Yellen
- B.Scott Bessent✓ Correct Answer
- C.Steven Mnuchin
- D.John Kerry
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Explanation
The article identifies Scott Bessent as the US Treasury Secretary who made the remarks ahead of a G20 finance leaders meeting. Janet Yellen was the previous Treasury Secretary under President Biden, Steven Mnuchin served under Trump earlier, and John Kerry is the climate envoy.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-China trade developments:
1. The US trade deficit with China for the first six months of 2026 was $73.9 billion, a reduction of one-third from the same period in 2025.
2. The IMF has assessed that the Chinese yuan is overvalued by as much as 21%.
3. Bessent rejected the idea of a new Plaza Accord as a solution to trade imbalances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per US Census Bureau data. Statement 2 is incorrect: the IMF assessed the yuan to be undervalued, not overvalued. Statement 3 is correct because Bessent called the Plaza Accord idea misguided and an 'easy way to get around dealing with the real trade problem'.
According to the US Treasury Secretary, what is the approximate size of China's trade surplus that he termed unsustainable?
- A.$500 billion
- B.$1.2 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$2.0 trillion
- D.$73.9 billion
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Explanation
Bessent stated, 'The world cannot have a China with a $1.2 trillion trade surplus.' The other options are distractors: $73.9 billion is the US trade deficit with China for first half of 2026.
What is the primary objective of the US Treasury's initiative 'Operation Economic Outcast'?
- A.To block Chinese technology imports to the US
- B.To impose weekly secondary sanctions on Iran to cut off its financial links✓ Correct Answer
- C.To renegotiate the Plaza Accord with China
- D.To exempt non-strategic goods from tariffs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Treasury launched 'Operation Economic Outcast' last week with the goal of increasing economic pressure on Iran by unveiling new secondary sanctions weekly, starting with banks. The other options are not related to this initiative.
Which organization published the report 'Changing Dynamics of Glaciers in the Hindu Kush Himalayan Region 1990-2020' used as a data source in the article?
- A.UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
- B.International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
- D.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
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Explanation
The article explicitly credits ICIMOD's report 'Changing Dynamics of Glaciers in the Hindu Kush Himalayan Region 1990-2020' as the source for glacier area decline charts. Other organizations like UNDP were mentioned for GLOF event data, not this specific report.
Consider the following statements regarding the Nepal flash floods:
1. Nepal has experienced 26 glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) events since the 1970s.
2. The catastrophic flash floods occurred on August 30, 2026.
3. Nepal's finance minister estimated the rebuild cost at $4-5 billion, nearly a tenth of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the UNDP data says Nepal experienced 26 GLOF events since the 1970s. Statement 2 is incorrect: the article states the flash floods occurred on August 26, 2026 (not August 30). Statement 3 is correct: the finance minister told Reuters the rebuilding would require $4-5 billion, nearly a tenth of the economy. Hence option C.
According to the article, what is the approximate global glacier mass loss since 1975?
- A.8,500 gigatonnes
- B.9,000 gigatonnes
- C.9,500 gigatonnes✓ Correct Answer
- D.10,000 gigatonnes
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Data show that the world has lost over 9,500 gigatonnes of its glacier mass since 1975.' The other options are close distractors but not the exact figure mentioned.
What is the primary lesson emphasized in the article for disaster management policies?
- A.Countries should increase GDP spending on military to handle relief operations.
- B.Governments must enhance early warning systems and readiness, especially in vulnerable countries.✓ Correct Answer
- C.All mountain populations should be relocated to plains to avoid such disasters.
- D.Climate change adaptation should be delayed until economic growth is achieved.
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Explanation
The article repeatedly stresses the need to 'rethink preparedness' and highlights that low- and lower-middle-income countries are highly vulnerable and less ready. It calls for strengthening disaster resilience through better assessment and readiness, not relocation or delayed action.
Which High Court passed the order quashing preventive detention under the Public Safety Act as mentioned in the news?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Delhi High Court
- D.Punjab and Haryana High Court
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Explanation
The article states that the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court, presided over by Justice M A Chowdhary, quashed the preventive detention order. The other courts are not mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the judgment:
1. The High Court quashed the detention order because the detaining authority failed to record subjective satisfaction that the detainee's activities could lead to public outrage.
2. The court held that the detainee was properly informed of his right to make a representation to both the government and the detaining authority.
3. The detention order was based only on registration of FIRs, which were stale and did not disclose any activity affecting public order.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the court observed no subjective satisfaction regarding public outrage. Statement 2 is incorrect – the court found that the detainee was NOT informed of the right to make a representation to the detaining authority, which was a key flaw. Statement 3 is correct as the detention order relied on stale FIRs from 2023 and 2025 without immediate link to public order. Hence option C.
On which date did the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court issue the order quashing the preventive detention?
- A.March 3, 2026
- B.August 21, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.August 31, 2026
- D.July 15, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the order was pronounced on August 21. March 3 is the date of the detention order itself, not the court order. August 31 is the publication date of the news article. Hence the correct date is August 21.
What is the primary constitutional significance of the High Court's ruling in this case?
- A.It upholds the power of district magistrates to detain persons without trial.
- B.It emphasizes that procedural safeguards under Article 22 are mandatory and must be strictly complied with.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It declares the Public Safety Act unconstitutional.
- D.It allows preventive detention for economic offences like bovine smuggling.
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Explanation
The court quashed the detention because the detainee was not informed of his right to make a representation to the detaining authority, which is a procedural safeguard under Article 22. The ruling reinforces that such safeguards are not optional but mandatory. The other options are incorrect: the court did not strike down the PSA, nor did it expand preventive detention powers.
Which Act is the primary legislation governing food safety in India?
- A.Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
- B.Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
- C.Essential Commodities Act, 1955
- D.Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986
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Explanation
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, consolidated multiple food laws and established FSSAI. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was repealed. The other options are not the primary food safety law.
Consider the following statements:
1. The FSSAI registration/license on a food package guarantees the safety, purity, or overall quality of the product.
2. The Bombay High Court reversed the suspension of a hotel's food license after finding two insects in the kitchen, citing lack of proportionality.
3. The Maggi controversy in 2015 highlighted the need for standardised food-testing procedures across India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect – the article explicitly states that the biggest misconception is that FSSAI registration guarantees safety/purity. Statement 2 is correct as per the Bombay HC observation. Statement 3 is correct – the Maggi case showed the need for standardised testing procedures.
According to government data cited in the article, how many food samples were analysed between 2022 and 2025?
- A.4.18 lakh
- B.5.18 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.6.18 lakh
- D.7.18 lakh
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Explanation
The article states: 'over 5.18 lakh food samples were analysed between 2022 and 2025'. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the FSSAI's campaign '#NoToAdulteration' mentioned in the article?
- A.To increase penalties on food businesses
- B.To raise consumer awareness about food adulteration✓ Correct Answer
- C.To ban all packaged food products
- D.To promote organic farming
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Explanation
The article mentions that FSSAI launched consumer-awareness initiatives, including campaigns on food adulteration and label literacy, such as '#NoToAdulteration'. The objective is to educate consumers, not to impose penalties or ban products.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the Indian Railways, the nodal body involved in the Madhepura loco factory joint venture?
- A.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- B.Ministry of Railways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
- D.Ministry of Transport
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Explanation
Indian Railways is a department under the Ministry of Railways. The Madhepura joint venture involves Indian Railways as a partner. The Ministry of Railways oversees all railway operations and policy in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Madhepura locomotive:
1. It is a single locomotive with two sections, not two coupled locomotives.
2. It can haul 6,000 tonnes at a top speed of 120 kmph on any gradient.
3. The average operating speed of these locomotives on Dedicated Freight Corridor tracks is around 50-60 kmph.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The locomotive is a single unit with two sections (four bogies) to achieve 120 kmph. Statement 2 is incorrect: The 6,000-tonne haulage at 120 kmph is specifically on a gradient of 1-in-150, not any gradient. Statement 3 is correct: The average speed on DFCC tracks is 50-60 kmph as mentioned by the MD. Hence option C is correct.
According to the article, what percentage of Alstom's global engineering work is now done in India, largely due to the Madhepura project?
- A.20%
- B.25%
- C.30%✓ Correct Answer
- D.35%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'more than 30% of Alstom’s engineering work globally is done in India' and that the Madhepura project has been an important part of that journey. The other options are close distractors but not supported by the text.
What is the primary benefit of shifting from schedule-based maintenance to condition-based monitoring, as implemented by MELPL?
- A.Increased locomotive top speed
- B.Reduced maintenance time and material requirements✓ Correct Answer
- C.Increased haulage capacity of locomotives
- D.Reduced fuel consumption
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Explanation
The article states that condition-based monitoring, using digital tools, has cut maintenance time by almost 20% and material requirements by close to 15%. This efficiency gain is the direct benefit. Other options like speed or haulage are not mentioned as outcomes of this maintenance change.
Which body constituted the expert committee that submitted the report on restructuring Minor Irrigation in Telangana?
- A.Telangana Water Resources Department
- B.Telangana Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Water Commission
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article states that the committee of experts was constituted by the Telangana Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Commission, as mentioned in the chairman’s statement.
Consider the following statements regarding the expert panel report on Minor Irrigation (MI) in Telangana:
1. The merger of minor irrigation with major irrigation departments occurred in 2014 after Telangana's formation.
2. The report states that 90% to 95% of farmers under MI sources depend on borewells.
3. The panel recommended that PR bodies and WUAs be given powers to collect water cess.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the merger happened in 2020, not 2014. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions 90-95% farmers not getting water and depending on borewells. Statement 3 is correct: the panel recommended policy support for PR bodies and WUAs to collect water use tax (water cess). Hence option B is correct.
According to the expert panel report, what percentage of farmers under minor irrigation sources in Telangana are not getting water from these sources and mostly depend on borewells?
- A.80% to 85%
- B.90% to 95%✓ Correct Answer
- C.70% to 75%
- D.85% to 90%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states '90% to 95% of farmers under minor irrigation sources were not getting water for irrigation from the sources and were mostly depending on borewells.' The other options are close distractors but 90-95% is the exact figure mentioned.
What is the primary objective of the expert panel's recommendation to improve pump-set efficiency in Telangana's minor irrigation sector?
- A.To increase agricultural output per hectare
- B.To reduce groundwater extraction
- C.To save approximately ₹3,000 crore per annum in energy consumption✓ Correct Answer
- D.To extend the lifespan of pump-sets
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Explanation
The article clearly states that improving pump-set efficiency could 'save at least ₹3,000 crore per annum energy consumption'. While reducing groundwater extraction is a related benefit, the direct and quantified objective mentioned is energy cost savings.
Which Indian company has partnered with the US Javelin Joint Venture for co-production of Javelin anti-tank missiles in India?
- A.Mahindra Defence Systems
- B.Larsen & Toubro (L&T)
- C.Tata Advanced Systems Limited✓ Correct Answer
- D.DRDO
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Explanation
As per the article, Tata Advanced Systems Limited signed a pact with Raytheon and Lockheed Martin (Javelin Joint Venture) to explore establishing a final assembly and integration facility for the Javelin missile in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Javelin anti-tank missile system:
1. It uses an infrared guidance system for target tracking after launch.
2. It has a maximum effective range of 5 kilometres.
3. It can be fired from a remote launcher mounted on an unmanned ground vehicle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the Javelin uses an infrared guidance system (fire-and-forget). Statement 2 is incorrect: the effective range is 2.5 km, not 5 km. Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions it can be fired from a remote launcher on an unmanned ground vehicle.
What is the standard effective range of the Javelin anti-tank missile?
- A.1.5 km
- B.2.5 km✓ Correct Answer
- C.3.5 km
- D.4.5 km
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Javelin has a standard effective range of 2.5 km. The other options are common distractors; 1.5 km is too low, 3.5 km and 4.5 km exceed the actual range.
What is the primary strategic benefit of local assembly of Javelin missiles in India, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To reduce the cost of the missile for the US government
- B.To ensure a reliable and steady supply for Indian forces and allies in the Indo-Pacific✓ Correct Answer
- C.To enable India to export the Javelin to other countries
- D.To transfer full design and manufacturing technology to India
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Explanation
The article states that localised production will 'ensure a reliable and steady supply of a proven weapons system, both for the US and its allies in the Indian Ocean Region as well as the wider South East Asia region.' Cost reduction is a secondary benefit, and full technology transfer or export rights are not mentioned.
Under which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is permanent alimony awarded?
- A.Section 13
- B.Section 24
- C.Section 25✓ Correct Answer
- D.Section 26
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Explanation
Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 empowers courts to grant permanent alimony and maintenance to either spouse at the time of or after the decree of divorce. Section 13 deals with grounds for divorce, Section 24 with interim maintenance, and Section 26 with custody of children.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court judgment on alimony:
1. The court held that an able-bodied husband cannot avoid maintenance by claiming no income.
2. The husband had already paid the full Rs 15 lakh alimony before the High Court order.
3. The court emphasized that family courts must follow Rajnesh vs Neha guidelines for asset disclosure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the HC ruled that an able-bodied husband must work and pay maintenance. Statement 2 is incorrect because the husband had only deposited Rs 7.5 lakh as per a November 2024 order, and the remaining Rs 7.5 lakh was directed to be paid within one month. Statement 3 is correct as the court reiterated that family courts must insist on affidavits of assets and liabilities as per Rajnesh vs Neha.
What was the amount of permanent alimony upheld by the Karnataka High Court in this case?
- A.Rs 7.5 lakh
- B.Rs 15 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- C.Rs 30 lakh
- D.Rs 15,000 per month
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Explanation
The family court had directed the husband to pay Rs 15 lakh as permanent alimony, which the Karnataka High Court upheld. Rs 7.5 lakh was the amount already deposited, and Rs 15,000 was the monthly maintenance awarded earlier. Rs 30 lakh is not mentioned.
What is the primary purpose of the Rajnesh vs Neha guidelines reiterated by the Karnataka High Court?
- A.To expedite divorce proceedings
- B.To ensure fair assessment of financial circumstances of both parties in maintenance cases✓ Correct Answer
- C.To limit the amount of alimony to a fixed percentage of income
- D.To provide legal aid to women in matrimonial disputes
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Explanation
The Rajnesh vs Neha guidelines require both parties to file detailed affidavits of assets, liabilities, income, and expenses. This enables courts to make a fair, objective, and realistic assessment of financial circumstances before awarding maintenance or alimony. The other options are not the primary purpose of these guidelines.
Which organisation is responsible for the launch of the EOS-05 satellite mentioned in the article?
- A.A. NASA
- B.B. ISRO✓ Correct Answer
- C.C. JAXA
- D.D. ESA
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Explanation
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the national space agency of India, responsible for all space missions including the launch of EOS-05 (GISAT-1A) from Sriharikota.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent ISRO launch:
1. The satellite EOS-05 is also called GISAT-1A and is a replacement for the failed GISAT-1.
2. The launch vehicle used is PSLV-C62, which had a previous failure in January 2026.
3. The satellite will be placed in low earth orbit for disaster monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: EOS-05 is GISAT-1A, replacing the failed GISAT-1. Statement 2 is incorrect: the launch vehicle is GSLV-F17, not PSLV-C62 (the previous failure was PSLV-C62). Statement 3 is incorrect: the satellite will be placed in geosynchronous orbit, not low earth orbit.
At what time is the EOS-05 satellite scheduled to be launched on September 4, 2026?
- A.A. 02:55 am IST✓ Correct Answer
- B.B. 05:25 am IST
- C.C. 11:30 pm IST
- D.D. 08:15 am IST
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Explanation
The article states that the launch is scheduled for September 4 at 02:55 am from Sriharikota. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the news.
What is the primary purpose of the EOS-05 satellite as mentioned in the article?
- A.A. Communication and internet services
- B.B. Navigation and positioning
- C.C. Earth observation for disaster monitoring, agriculture, and forestry✓ Correct Answer
- D.D. Meteorological data collection
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Explanation
The article specifically states that the satellite is designed to image large areas of interest at frequent intervals for monitoring natural disasters, agriculture, and forestry. While it may have secondary uses, the primary purpose is earth observation.
Which institution released the data on sectoral credit growth mentioned in the article?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Finance
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the data was released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The RBI is the central bank responsible for monetary policy and regulation of the banking sector in India, and it regularly publishes sectoral credit growth data.
Consider the following statements regarding the bank credit data as of July 2026:
1. Non-food bank credit expanded by 19.1% year-on-year.
2. The services sector recorded credit growth of 20% year-on-year.
3. Loans against gold jewellery grew by 88.1% as of July 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: non-food bank credit grew 19.1% YoY. Statement 2 is incorrect: services sector credit grew 22.9%, not 20%. Statement 3 is correct: loans against gold jewellery grew 88.1% YoY (slowing from 136.4% a year ago). Hence option C is correct.
According to the RBI data, what was the year-on-year growth in bank credit to the medium industry segment as of July 31, 2026?
- A.17.7%
- B.30.5%✓ Correct Answer
- C.22.6%
- D.20.0%
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Explanation
The article states that the medium industry segment reported a growth of 30.5% in credit offtake, compared to 15% a year ago. The other options are growth rates for other segments: 17.7% for large industry, 22.6% for micro and small industry, and 20% for overall industry.
What does the sharp increase in industrial credit indicate according to the RBI data?
- A.A decline in working capital needs of companies
- B.Improving demand for working capital and investment financing by companies✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reduction in the RBI's policy repo rate
- D.An increase in non-performing assets in the banking sector
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Explanation
The article mentions that the sharp rise in industrial credit 'could indicate improving demand for working capital and investment financing by companies.' This reflects stronger economic activity and business confidence. The other options are not supported by the article.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for water resources management in India and was represented by its minister during the Sone river water sharing MoU signing?
- A.Ministry of Jal Shakti✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article mentions that Jal Shakti Minister C R Patil was present at the signing. The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal ministry for water resources, including inter-state river water sharing.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sone river water sharing MoU:
1. The MoU was signed between Bihar Chief Minister Samrat Choudhary and Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren.
2. Union Home Minister Amit Shah and Jal Shakti Minister C R Patil were present at the signing.
3. This is the first inter-state water agreement signed in the year 2026.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the MoU was signed by the two CMs. Statement 2 is correct: Union Home Minister Amit Shah and Jal Shakti Minister C R Patil were present. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article mentions it is the fourth water agreement in 2026, after the Narmada Award (July 7), Yamuna Water Project (June 29), and Kishau Multipurpose Dam (June 16).
How many districts in Bihar are mentioned as beneficiaries of the Sone river water sharing agreement?
- A.6
- B.7
- C.8✓ Correct Answer
- D.9
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Explanation
The article explicitly lists eight districts: Bhojpur, Buxar, Rohtas, Kaimur, Aurangabad, Arwal, Gaya, and Patna. The other options are distractors; 8 is the correct count.
What is the primary significance of the Sone river water sharing MoU?
- A.It resolves a long-pending water dispute through cooperative federalism✓ Correct Answer
- B.It establishes a new tribunal for adjudicating water disputes
- C.It allocates water exclusively for industrial use
- D.It replaces the existing Inter-State River Water Disputes Act
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Explanation
The article quotes Union Home Minister Amit Shah stating that the agreement resolves a long-awaited water dispute and is an example of cooperative federalism and the 'Team Bharat' vision. The other options are not mentioned or are incorrect: no tribunal was established, water is for irrigation and drinking, not just industrial, and the Act remains in place.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 31 August 2026?▼
This page contains 92 current affairs questions from 31 August 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 31 August 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
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- Q33. ministry is primarily responsible for the experimental monetar…
- Q34. Consider the following statements: 1. India's total fish prod…
- Q35. was the value of marine product exports from India in FY25 acc…
- Q36. is the primary purpose of assigning monetary value to marine f…
- Q37. According to the article, which year is considered the first c…
- Q38. Consider the following statements: 1. The Census 2027 will ha…
- Q39. In which census year was the category 'transgender person' for…
- Q40. of the following developments in the census questionnaire is N…
- Q41. caste community is the Maratha activist trying to claim recogn…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Maratha quota …
- Q43. According to activist Manoj Jarange, how many Kunbi genealogic…
- Q44. is the primary objective of the Maratha community's demand for…
- Q45. ministry is primarily responsible for the compilation and rele…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding India's GDP growth…
- Q47. was the growth rate of the services sector (tertiary sector) i…
- Q48. is the primary reason cited by economists for the expected slo…
- Q49. is the current US Treasury Secretary who urged G20 countries t…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the US-China trade…
- Q51. According to the US Treasury Secretary, what is the approximat…
- Q52. is the primary objective of the US Treasury's initiative 'Oper…
- Q53. organization published the report 'Changing Dynamics of Glacie…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Nepal flash fl…
- Q55. According to the article, what is the approximate global glaci…
- Q56. is the primary lesson emphasized in the article for disaster m…
- Q57. High Court passed the order quashing preventive detention unde…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the judgment: 1. …
- Q59. On which date did the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court …
- Q60. is the primary constitutional significance of the High Court's…
- Q61. Act is the primary legislation governing food safety in India?
- Q62. Consider the following statements: 1. The FSSAI registration/…
- Q63. According to government data cited in the article, how many fo…
- Q64. is the primary objective of the FSSAI's campaign '#NoToAdulter…
- Q65. ministry is primarily responsible for the Indian Railways, the…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the Madhepura loco…
- Q67. According to the article, what percentage of Alstom's global e…
- Q68. is the primary benefit of shifting from schedule-based mainten…
- Q69. body constituted the expert committee that submitted the repor…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the expert panel r…
- Q71. According to the expert panel report, what percentage of farme…
- Q72. is the primary objective of the expert panel's recommendation …
- Q73. Indian company has partnered with the US Javelin Joint Venture…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Javelin anti-t…
- Q75. is the standard effective range of the Javelin anti-tank missile?
- Q76. is the primary strategic benefit of local assembly of Javelin …
- Q77. Under which section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is permane…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
- Q79. was the amount of permanent alimony upheld by the Karnataka Hi…
- Q80. is the primary purpose of the Rajnesh vs Neha guidelines reite…
- Q81. organisation is responsible for the launch of the EOS-05 satel…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the recent ISRO la…
- Q83. At what time is the EOS-05 satellite scheduled to be launched …
- Q84. is the primary purpose of the EOS-05 satellite as mentioned in…
- Q85. institution released the data on sectoral credit growth mentio…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the bank credit da…
- Q87. According to the RBI data, what was the year-on-year growth in…
- Q88. does the sharp increase in industrial credit indicate accordin…
- Q89. ministry is primarily responsible for water resources manageme…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the Sone river wat…
- Q91. many districts in Bihar are mentioned as beneficiaries of the …
- Q92. is the primary significance of the Sone river water sharing MoU?