3 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that BCI's disciplinary powers are under the Advocates Act, 1961. This Act establishes the Bar Council of India and governs the legal profession. Option A and C are historical acts not currently in force for BCI, while the Constitution does not directly establish BCI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct per the Supreme Court ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect because the BCI chairperson informed the court that the letters were withdrawn voluntarily; the court only declared them obsolete, not directed withdrawal. Statement 3 is correct as the petitioners were two former NALSAR graduates. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically names Manan Kumar Mishra as the BCI chairperson who appeared in court and stated that the letters were withdrawn. The other options are former Attorneys General or prominent lawyers not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The ruling explicitly states BCI has no power to punish law students, thus protecting their freedom of speech and association. Options A and C are contrary to the ruling, and option D is unrelated. The judgment ensures BCI cannot impose punitive measures on students.

Explanation

According to the article, the Expert Group on Boundary Delimitation and the Working Group on Border Management were set up under the WMCC a year ago to advance discussions on an Early and Substantial Harvest.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: It was China that first proposed settling the Sikkim Sector alone. India then responded with a counter-proposal on an 'Early and Substantial Harvest' covering Sikkim and the entire Middle Sector (statement 2 correct). The phrase has indeed resurfaced in the Eight Points (statement 3 correct). Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 25th round of talks was held on August 25, 2026, in Beijing. Therefore, 25 rounds have taken place. Options 23 and 24 are incorrect; 26 is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article argues that a limited settlement would leave hard issues open in the East and West (option 1), jettison the package clause of the 2005 Agreement (option 2), and by not resolving trijunction points, allow China to push its position in Bhutan, threatening the Siliguri Corridor (option 3). Hence all are correct.

Explanation

The Supreme Court judgment specifically mentions Entry 57 of List I (Union List) as the constitutional basis for the Centre's power to regulate fishing beyond territorial waters. Entry 21 of List II pertains to fisheries within territorial waters, which is a State subject.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC directed Tamil Nadu to frame rules for a specified channel under the Marine Fishing Regulation Rules, 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect: The court found no conflict between the two laws and upheld both as co-equal. Statement 3 is correct: Only 6 access passes were issued out of 257 applications.

Explanation

The Supreme Court noted that only 6 access passes were issued out of 257 total applications made on the ReALCRaft Portal as on August 3, 2026, calling this the lowest among all coastal states.

Explanation

The 'specified channel' is intended to allow vessels carrying purse seine nets to pass through Tamil Nadu's territorial waters to reach the EEZ for fishing, without fishing within the 12 nautical mile zone where the State's ban applies.

Explanation

Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression. It is a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution. The other options: Article 14 (Right to Equality), Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty), Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) are not directly related to free speech.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the bench was a three-judge bench led by CJI Surya Kant, not a two-judge bench. Statement 2 is correct: the article states the court acted on the request of governments at the Centre and some states. Statement 3 is correct: the Allahabad High Court quashed the NSA detention of a student activist, terming the state's case 'concocted'. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'the average period a protester spent in custody was 53 days' for the Noida factory worker protests. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The editorial repeatedly questions the selective nature of the quashing – it benefited student protesters but left out factory workers, CAA protesters, and farmers. This raises concerns about unequal justice and the criminalisation of dissent based on who the protester is. The other options are not supported by the article's central argument.

Explanation

The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) is the primary law governing the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contributions by individuals, associations, and companies in India. FEMA deals with foreign exchange, PMLA with money laundering, and UAPA with unlawful activities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill creates a statutory framework for a 'Designated Authority' to manage foreign contributions/assets. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bill allows management of activities where 'necessary or expedient in the public interest', not only for anti-national activities. Statement 3 is correct: The Bill has been referred to a JPC after opposition protests.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the 'Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026'. The other options are close distractors, but only 2026 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article argues that the Bill crosses the boundary from regulating foreign contributions to exercising executive control over the institutions that receive them. This raises questions about proportionality – whether the means (potential management of activities and assets) are proportionate to the legitimate objective of regulating foreign funds. Options A, C, and D are not the primary constitutional concern highlighted in the article.

Explanation

The Judges Inquiry Act, 1968 lays down the detailed procedure for investigation and proof of misbehaviour or incapacity of a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court. The petition in the news specifically references this Act for removal proceedings against judges.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the petitioner is Pratik Vora, not Justice Yashwant Varma (who resigned). Statement 3 is correct: the petition specifically mentions that resignation to avoid removal amounts to a betrayal of probity in public life.

Explanation

The article clearly states that 'The Supreme Court on Thursday (September 3, 2026) sought the Union government’s response...' So the correct date is September 3, 2026. The other options are a day before/after and are distractors.

Explanation

The petition seeks a direction that judges and other constitutional functionaries who resign rather than face transparent inquiry for misconduct should be denied retirement perks and benefits. This is aimed at creating a deterrent against unprincipled resignations.

Explanation

The article's image caption mentions 'Smoke rising from oil infrastructure in the southern Krasnodar region of Russia following a Ukrainian drone strike'. This is a static geography fact linked to the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says Indian refiners sent about one million barrels over the last two months. Statement 2 is incorrect because Russia's import of petroleum products from India was negligible (less than 1%). Statement 3 is correct: the bulk of India's petroleum exports go to the Netherlands, Australia, and the UAE.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Indian refiners sent 'about one million barrels over the last two months' to Russia. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article's lead states that 'Ukraine's recent relentless attacks on Russia's oil refineries has led the country to rely on India for petroleum imports.' While sanctions may be a background factor, the immediate trigger is the damage to Russian refining capacity from drone strikes.

Explanation

Article 142 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. Article 136 deals with special leave to appeal, Article 145 with rules of court, and Article 32 with fundamental rights enforcement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Article 118 (now 142) was adopted on May 27, 1949 without debate. Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC quashed FIRs except for about 2,873 individuals with serious criminal antecedents. Statement 3 is correct as Section 528 of BNSS governs the quashing of FIRs.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that all FIRs were quashed except those involving roughly 2,873 individuals said to have 'serious and grave criminal antecedents'. The other numbers (1,579 and 791) refer to references and direct invocations of Article 142 between 1950-2023.

Explanation

The controversy stems from the SC using Article 142 to quash FIRs en masse as part of a negotiated settlement, circumventing the statutory scheme that requires individual examination of each FIR. This raises questions about whether Article 142 can override a specific statutory framework. Options A and C are factual but not the reason for controversy; D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The Bar Council of India is a statutory body created under the Advocates Act, 1961. The Act provides for the establishment of the BCI and State Bar Councils, and defines their powers, including disciplinary powers over enrolled advocates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC held that BCI has no power to discipline law students before enrolment. Statement 2 is incorrect: The BCI directive was declared 'without authority of law' and 'bad in law'. Statement 3 is correct: The court said disciplinary matters are the exclusive domain of the educational institution.

Explanation

The article states that BCI chairman Manan Kumar Mishra issued the directive on August 13, 2026, asking state bar councils not to enrol NALSAR's 2026 batch students. The directive was withdrawn later the same night.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly held that disciplinary action against law students is the exclusive domain of the parent institution, as per the Advocates Act, 1961. BCI and State Bar Councils have no jurisdiction over students before enrolment. This reinforces the autonomy of law schools.

Explanation

The article clearly states that ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation) launched the EOS-05 satellite using a GSLV-Mk II rocket from Satish Dhawan Space Centre. NASA is mentioned only in the context of the NISAR joint mission, not for this launch.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions EOS-05 is India's first imaging satellite in geosynchronous orbit. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was launched using GSLV-F17 (Mk II), not PSLV. Statement 3 is correct as the article states it is the heaviest satellite carried by GSLV at over 2,360 kg. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the geosynchronous orbit is about 36,000 km from Earth. The transfer orbit altitude was 190 km, but the final destination is 36,000 km. The other options are common distractors: 400 km is typical for LEO, 22,000 km is for GPS satellites.

Explanation

The article explains that in geosynchronous orbit, the satellite remains stationary relative to Earth, allowing it to watch the same region continuously. In contrast, LEO satellites circle Earth and provide periodic coverage. This is the key advantage highlighted in the news.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the WMO (World Meteorological Organization) warned of the 'very strong' El Nino. The WMO is a UN specialized agency for weather, climate, and water resources. IMD is the Indian counterpart, but not the source of this global warning.

Explanation

All statements are correct as per the article. Statement 1 is a textbook definition. Statement 2: The article says the index 'surpassed 1.5 degrees Celsius above normal during May-July'. Statement 3: WMO said IOD is likely to develop with a seasonal mean of 0.9°C. Hence option D is correct.

Explanation

The article's headline and the first paragraph clearly state that the El Nino is expected to last 'till February of next year' (i.e., Feb 2027). The other options are close distractors but do not match the exact duration mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes the WMO Secretary-General saying 'It has the potential to deliver a massive blow to communities and economies across the world' and 'we are already seeing disruption and devastation from droughts and floods'. The core concern is the socio-economic impact of extreme weather, not just temperature rise or a specific crisis.

Explanation

The Supreme Court judgment explicitly states that the 'academic authority' contemplated under Section 23 of the RTE Act is the Council established under the National Council for Teacher Education Act, 1993, i.e., the NCTE. NCERT is a research body, UGC oversees higher education, and AICTE regulates technical education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC held the Public Notice legal and valid. Statement 2 is incorrect – the Delhi High Court had set aside the notice as arbitrary and illegal, not upheld it. Statement 3 is correct as the SC explicitly added TEIs and NCTE as the sixth and seventh duty-bearers. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Public Notice was issued on September 22, 2019. March 13, 2023 is the date of the Delhi High Court order. September 3, 2026 is the date of the Supreme Court judgment. January 13, 2026 is the date of the Dinesh Biwaji Ashtikar case.

Explanation

The Supreme Court observed that it is necessary for the Council and its bodies to ensure accountability of educational institutions. The Court also linked the requirement to the broader goal of planned and coordinated development of teacher education. While the CAG audit was mentioned as a reason for needing reports, the primary objective is accountability and quality, not just compliance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that DSIIDC will be the single nodal agency for all business approvals through the single-window system. Other options are common Delhi-government bodies but not designated for this role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct (no routine inspection for 3 years, but serious complaint can trigger inspection). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Bill exempts enterprises already registered under GST, FSSAI, MSME, or labour codes from obtaining separate trade, health-trade, eating house, or shops and establishments registrations.

Explanation

The article states: 'No routine inspection will be carried out for three years after an enterprise is registered.' The other options are distractors; 3 years is explicitly mentioned.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes simplifying processes, reducing visits to multiple offices, and moving to a trust-based system. While FDI attraction may be an indirect benefit, the stated objective is ease of doing business, not tax incentives or decentralization.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Indian Air Force (IAF) conducted the drop trial of the indigenously designed Long Range Glide Bomb, Khagantak-243. The IAF is responsible for aerial warfare and air defence operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Khagantak-243 is an indigenously designed and developed LRGB. Statement 2 is incorrect because the trial was conducted by the Indian Air Force, not the Indian Navy. Statement 3 is correct as the article states that long-range glide bombs allow platforms to strike targets while remaining outside the reach of certain air defence systems.

Explanation

The article specifically names the weapon as 'Khagantak-243', an indigenously designed and developed Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB). The other options are different indigenous missile systems: BrahMos-NG is a supersonic cruise missile, Nirbhay is a subsonic cruise missile, and SAAW is a different precision weapon developed by DRDO.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that long-range glide bombs are designed to enable combat aircraft to engage targets from stand-off distances, allowing platforms to strike enemy targets while remaining outside the reach of certain air defence systems. This is their primary strategic advantage, enhancing survivability and mission effectiveness.

Explanation

The study was conducted by M. Balasubramanian, associate professor at the Centre for Ecological Economics and Natural Resources, Institute for Social and Economic Change (ISEC), Bengaluru. ISEC is a premier research institute under the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the TEV is ₹2,485.38 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect because the study found that the majority of blue carbon is stored below ground in mangrove sediments (soil organic carbon value: ₹1,224.63 crore), not in vegetation (₹387.77 crore). Statement 3 is correct as the study advocates for incorporating mangrove values into Natural Capital Accounting and Green GDP frameworks.

Explanation

The study estimated the per-hectare value of the Pichavaram mangrove ecosystem at ₹1.83 crore. This is derived from the Total Economic Value (₹2,485.38 crore) divided by the area of the mangrove forest. The other options are incorrect multipliers.

Explanation

Economic valuation of ecosystem services, as done for Pichavaram mangroves, aims to assign monetary value to non-market ecological benefits (e.g., coastal protection, carbon sequestration, biodiversity) that are often ignored in conventional development planning. This helps policymakers integrate environmental considerations into decisions, justify conservation investments, and design mechanisms like Payment for Ecosystem Services (PES).

Explanation

The article states that FSSAI, in an affidavit filed in the Supreme Court on August 28, proposed the red hexagon warning label. ICMR-NIN provided the dietary guidelines used as the basis for thresholds, the Supreme Court is hearing the matter, and NAPI is a nutrition advocacy group.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are directly supported by the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says single-ingredient foods and products inherently rich in these nutrients, including ghee, edible oil, jaggery and honey, are proposed to be exempt from the warning.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court is scheduled to consider the affidavit on September 10. August 28, 2026 is the date on which the affidavit was filed, and September 3, 2026 is the publication date of the article.

Explanation

The article quotes Arun Gupta of NAPI arguing that a product high in sugar but low in salt and fat could escape a warning altogether, and sugary beverages high in added sugar but little or no fat or salt could fall outside Phase I. The other options are separate concerns raised by critics, not the specific reason for the 'defeats the purpose' argument.

Explanation

The article states that the accused was convicted under the POCSO Act, 2012 for sexual assault, in addition to rape under the Indian Penal Code. The High Court specifically upheld the conviction under POCSO. Hence, the correct answer is the POCSO Act, 2012.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the court explicitly said consent is irrelevant. Statement 2 is incorrect: the trial court sentenced the accused to 10 years imprisonment, not 15. Statement 3 is correct: the court noted the minor's evidence was of sterling quality. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the trial court imposed a fine of ₹50,000 in addition to the 10-year imprisonment. The High Court upheld this sentence. The other options are distractors not mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The court emphasized that consent is irrelevant in POCSO cases, meaning that even if a minor appears to have consented to a sexual act, it is not a valid defence. This reinforces the absolute protection of children under the POCSO Act. The other options contradict the judgment's core principle.

Explanation

The article states that the financial requirement will stay within the ₹2,000 crore sanctioned by the Centre under PM E-Drive. Hence the Central Government is the sanctioning entity; KSEB and ICCT are study partners.

Explanation

Statement 1 correctly gives the corridor stretch and route. Statement 2 wrongly swaps the data: FASTag data was from four toll gates, GPS data from 13,355 trucks, and 3,39,692 parking details. Statement 3 correctly mentions the report's launch venue.

Explanation

The study estimates that by 2050, the NH-66 corridor would require 1,939 chargers with a combined capacity of 204.5 MW and an investment of ₹338 crore. The other options are initial investment and central/state sanctioned amounts.

Explanation

KSEB Director Rajan M. said the corridor would demonstrate the practical aspects of electrifying cargo transportation and preparing the grid for it. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Delhi High Court referred to the advisory issued by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in May 2026. The NHRC is a statutory body empowered to issue such advisories for the protection of human rights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court noted the absence of any SOP for transgender persons while Delhi Police has one for women and senior citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court relied on the NHRC's advisory, not the NCW's. Statement 3 is correct as the petitioner is indeed Taaran Chandna, a law student.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the court listed the matter for hearing on November 18, 2026. The other dates are distractors; September 2 is the date of the current hearing, not the next one.

Explanation

The plea argued that the absence of an SOP leads to violation of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19, and 21. The court's directive aims to fill this vacuum to protect the rights of transgender persons during police procedures, not to grant special privileges or increase arrests.

Explanation

The article states that the Resource Adequacy Plan was approved by the Central Electricity Authority and the Karnataka Electricity Regulatory Commission. KERC is the state-level regulator for electricity, and this is a static fact directly from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article says current capacity is over 39 GW with two-thirds from clean sources. Statement 2 is incorrect: demand in August 2026 was 310-350 MU, not 210-310 MU. Statement 3 is correct: KPTCL transmission losses are under 3%. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Karnataka aims to scale its installed power capacity from over 39 GW to 66 GW by 2030. The other options are distractors: 39 GW is current capacity, 2000 MW is the Sharavathi Pumped Storage Project capacity, and 3% is KPTCL's transmission loss percentage.

Explanation

The article highlights that the roadmap is driven by rising demand (expected to double) and focuses on clean energy, storage, and transmission upgrades. Options A and C are specific components but not the primary objective. Option D is incorrect as the focus is on clean energy, not coal.

Explanation

The news specifically mentions that the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) issued the circular on May 15 making three languages compulsory for Class 9. NCERT is involved in curriculum development, but the policy implementation is by CBSE.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the circular states the move aligns with NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect because students opting for a foreign language can do so only as the third language after studying two native Indian languages, or as an additional fourth language. Statement 3 is correct as the CBSE explicitly stated no board exam for R3 at Class 10 to reduce pressure.

Explanation

According to the news, the CBSE circular stated that with effect from July 1, 2026, for Class 9, the study of three languages (R1, R2, R3) shall be compulsory. May 15 is the date the circular was issued, June 30 was the deadline for schools to update OASIS portal, and September 3 is the date of the court hearing.

Explanation

The news states that the move is part of CBSE's alignment of its scheme of studies with NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023. The policy mandates at least two native Indian languages, promoting multilingualism. It does not promote foreign language learning as primary, nor does it reduce languages or make Hindi compulsory.

Explanation

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulator for the securities market in India. It proposed the net settlement of funds for mutual fund schemes, as mentioned in the article. RBI regulates banking and monetary policy, IRDAI regulates insurance, and the Ministry of Finance oversees fiscal policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the proposal allows net settlement of funds only; securities will continue to be settled on a gross basis. Statement 2 is correct as netting is permitted only at the individual scheme level, not across schemes. Statement 3 is correct as SEBI had earlier allowed a similar net settlement framework for FPIs.

Explanation

The article states that SEBI has sought public comments till September 24, 2026 on the proposal. The other dates are distractors: September 03, 2026 is the publication date of the article, and the other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the proposal aims to 'facilitate ease of doing business, improve settlement efficiency and reduce temporary liquidity requirements for mutual fund schemes.' Options A, C, and D are not mentioned as objectives of this specific proposal.

Explanation

The Bar Council of India is a statutory body established under Section 4 of the Advocates Act, 1961. It regulates the legal profession and legal education in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the SC ruled BCI has no disciplinary powers over law students. Statement 2 is correct as per the Manipur Home Minister's statement. Statement 3 is correct as the SC declined to hear the plea. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Manipur Home Minister Govindas Konthoujam told the Assembly that 49 people are still missing. The other options are close distractors introduced to test precise recall of the data.

Explanation

The Delhi High Court asked the Centre and Delhi Police to formulate an SOP focusing on the rights and dignity of transgender persons, in line with the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019. The primary objective is to prevent discrimination and ensure humane treatment.

Explanation

The article states that DJI, founded in 2006, has captured more than two-thirds of the global drone market, making it the dominant player targeted by the US tariffs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the 100% tariff applies only to drones over 25kg, not all drones. Statement 2 is incorrect because component tariffs take effect on February 9, 2027. Statement 3 is correct as per the article: DJI has been on the US military-linked list since 2022.

Explanation

The article clearly states that drones with a takeoff weight exceeding 25 kg, as well as those with thermal imaging capabilities and docking stations, face a 100% tariff. Smaller drones face a 25% duty.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the order cites 'the national security threat posed by imports of drones and their components' and aims to 'boost domestic supply chains', making option B the correct answer. Revenue generation is not the stated primary objective.

Explanation

The article states the workshop was organised by the Ministry of Commerce. The Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal addressed it, indicating the nodal ministry is Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Minister mentioned the nine FTAs cover $60 trillion GDP. Statement 2 is false; India was at a disadvantage compared to Bangladesh (LDC status) and Vietnam (better FTAs). Statement 3 is correct as the export target is $1 trillion for the current year.

Explanation

The Minister stated exports during the first four months reached about $317 billion, compared to $280 billion during the same period last year. This shows a growth of roughly 13%.

Explanation

The Minister called for a 'focused, inclusive and nationwide effort' to maximise the utilisation of FTAs to expand trade, ensuring benefits reach all businesses across 780 districts. This was the workshop's core objective.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Tamil Nadu Chief Minister Vijay made the announcement in the Assembly. This is a static GK fact about the state's executive action.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the CM announced 10,000 personnel recruitment this year. Statement 2 is incorrect: the target is 30%, not 40%. Statement 3 is correct: the Singapen Special Task Force is for crimes against women and children. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the State currently has a total police strength of 1,34,667 personnel. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states that the primary objectives include 'transforming Tamil Nadu into a drug-free State', for which the Anti-Drug Force is established. The other options are related to other announcements.

Explanation

The article refers to Anil Kakodkar as the former chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission, which is the apex policy-making body for India's nuclear programme. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is the executive arm, BARC is a research centre, and NPCIL is the operating company.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the three-stage programme aims for fuel self-reliance. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first stage uses Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), not fast breeder reactors. Statement 3 is correct: Kakodkar stated that thorium was initially envisaged for use in fast breeder reactors. Hence option C.

Explanation

The article states 'India’s targeted 100 gigawatts-electric (GWe) of nuclear capacity'. Option A (50 GWe) is the approximate PHWR portion, option C (750 GWe) is global uranium support capacity, and option D (1,400 GWe) is the projected global nuclear capacity by 2050.

Explanation

Kakodkar argued that introducing thorium in PHWRs 'could accelerate the utilisation of India’s abundant thorium reserves'. While cost and uranium consumption are considerations, the primary goal is earlier thorium utilisation to achieve self-reliance.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions a circular issued by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) regarding the new language policy. While the Ministry of Education and NCERT are related bodies, the CBSE is the implementing board for this specific policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the circular states the move is part of aligning with NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that students opting for a foreign language may do so only as the third language (after studying two native Indian languages) or as an additional fourth language. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions that no board exam for R3 will be conducted at the Class 10 level.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the policy is effective 'with effect from July 1, 2026, for Class 9'. May 15, 2026, was the date the circular was issued. August 20 and September 3 are dates related to the court hearings.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the CBSE's decision to not hold a board exam for R3 was 'to keep the focus on learning and reduce any undue pressure on students'. This emphasizes the student-centric approach of the policy implementation, as also noted by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The article mentions that Belgian Defence minister Theo Francken met Defence minister Rajnath Singh, indicating the Ministry of Defence is the nodal body for defence cooperation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – the article mentions a Letter of Intent signed. Statement 2 is incorrect – the capacity is 100 million rounds per year, not 50 million. Statement 3 is correct – Exail Belgium will supply autonomous toolboxes for the MCM vessels. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The project is worth €50 million.' The other options are distractors; €30 million and €70 million are not mentioned, while €100 million is the production capacity in rounds, not the project value.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasises India developing its own production capacity (e.g., 'India develops its own production capacity' and 'strengthens both our security and our economic position'). Options A, C, D are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that trade data was released by the Commerce and Industry Ministry. This ministry oversees export promotion, trade policy, and publishes monthly export-import data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: exports grew 15% to $129.32 billion. Statement 2 is correct: CAD widened to $4.2 billion (0.5% of GDP) from $3.4 billion (0.4%). Statement 3 is incorrect: textiles declined 12.4% and tea declined 17.5%, so they did not register positive growth. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that June 2026 exports jumped to a record $44.24 billion. $129.32 billion is the Q1 total, $86.1 billion is the merchandise trade deficit, and $99.04 billion is non-petroleum, non-gems and jewellery exports for the quarter.

Explanation

The article explains that the West Asia crisis led to steep logistics costs, with freight rates surging 10-fold in key markets. Low-margin exporters could not absorb these costs, leading to a decline in exports. High-end sectors with better margins managed to absorb the shock. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

MoSPI is the nodal agency for compiling and releasing GDP data in India. The Ministry of Finance handles fiscal policy, NITI Aayog is a policy think tank, and RBI deals with monetary policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per official MoSPI data. Statement 2 is correct - the base year change occurred on February 27, 2026. Statement 3 is incorrect because Garg's calculation mixes data from old and new base years, which is invalid.

Explanation

The official data showed nominal GDP growth of 10.3% for Q1 FY26. 7.8% is the real GDP growth, 2.6% is Garg's incorrect calculation, and 70% is the absurd result if Garg's method were applied to real GDP.

Explanation

Base year revision allows governments to update data sources, capture structural changes in the economy, and improve accuracy. It is a routine statistical exercise, not a political tool. The article emphasizes that the revision was long-pending and necessary.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Allahabad High Court, presided by Justice Vivek Kumar Singh, passed the ruling on August 25, 2026. The other options are incorrect as they refer to other courts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the court explicitly stated that personal liberty is not an absolute or unfettered right. Statement 2 is correct as the court said the petitioner must first obtain a divorce decree before entering a live-in relationship. Statement 3 is correct as the court noted that granting protection would amount to protection against the punishable offence of bigamy. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that the ruling was dated August 25, 2026. September 3, 2026 is the publication date of the news article, not the judgment date. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The court held that the freedom of one person ends where the statutory right of another person starts. The spouse has a statutory right to enjoy the company of their counterpart, and this right cannot be infringed by claiming personal liberty to enter a live-in relationship without divorce. The court did not hold live-in relationships illegal in general, nor did it say police protection cannot be sought for any relationship.

Explanation

The article states that diamond trade, with Antwerp as a major global hub, remains a significant component of India-Belgium bilateral commerce. Belgium is an important economic partner for India in Europe.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the article says an Investment Fast-Track Mechanism has been established for Belgian companies. Statement 2 is incorrect because FDI inflows from Belgium were approximately $4.2 billion, not $42 billion. Statement 3 is correct because PM Modi cited 7.8% GDP growth in the last quarter. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article reports bilateral trade at $13.01 billion in 2025-26. $4.2 billion is Belgium's cumulative FDI into India, while $13.1 billion is a plausible swap-distractor. Hence option A is correct.

Explanation

PM Modi stated that through these initiatives India and Belgium will realise their goal of doubling bilateral trade over the next five years. The other options contradict or are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the NIA is investigating the case and has filed an application before a Delhi court. The NIA is India's premier counter-terrorism agency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: seven foreign nationals were arrested in March. Statement 2 is incorrect because the attack was on a civilian aircraft, not a military one. Statement 3 is correct: the court allowed the application on August 31, 2026. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that seven foreign nationals (six Ukrainians and one American) were arrested. The number 14 refers to the total Ukrainians who entered India, not the number arrested.

Explanation

While all options are mentioned, the NIA specifically states that the ethnic armed groups (EAOs) support proscribed Indian insurgent groups by supplying weapons and training, thus affecting national security. This is the core security concern.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'the Bihar State Power Holding Company Limited will invest ₹82,679 crore directly to generating assets', making it the nodal agency for the plan.

Explanation

All statements are directly mentioned in the article: the plant pairs a 301 MW solar facility with a 523 MWh BESS, is located in Lakhisarai, and has a cost of ₹2,866 crore.

Explanation

The article states 'The state faces an average daily demand of 7,300 to 7,400 MW'. 550 MW is the own generation capacity, 9,500 MW is the peak summer demand, and 11,747 MW is the projected peak demand by 2030.

Explanation

The plan is driven by the stark reality of high power purchase costs (₹25,000-35,000 crore annually) and minimal own generation. The aim is to meet growing demand through renewable energy and storage, thereby reducing reliance on external power and improving the financial health of state utilities.

Explanation

The article specifies that the meeting took place on the sidelines of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Summit in Bishkek. SAARC, BRICS, and UN are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Rubio's warning was general ('no country should help'), not specifically targeting India. Statement 2 is correct as Modi said 'resolution of all tensions and conflicts is possible only through dialogue and diplomacy'. Statement 3 is correct: 'the war in West Asia completed six months'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'As the war in West Asia completed six months and a peace deal remained elusive...' This is a direct data point from the news.

Explanation

Rubio stated that revenue generated by Iran would be used to 'sponsor terrorism and try to build a nuclear weapon'. This is the stated objective behind the sanctions warning.