19 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The core issue concerns the right to appeal against an acquittal, which is governed by the procedural framework of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC), specifically Sections 372 and 378. The Indian Penal Code defines crimes, the Evidence Act deals with proof, and the NI Act defines the specific offence of cheque dishonour.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the 2025 Celestium Financial ruling. Statement 2 is correct as these pre-2025 judgments upheld the 'special leave' requirement. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Supreme Court has NOT made any such final ruling on constitutionality. It has only referred the conflicting interpretations to a larger bench for examination.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the trigger for the current reference to a larger bench is a 2025 ruling of the Supreme Court in *Celestium Financial v A Gnanasekaran*. The reference itself happened in February 2026.

Explanation

The 2025 ruling held that a complainant who is a 'victim' can appeal under the proviso to Section 372 CrPC and "need not advert to sub-section (4) of Section 378." Section 378(4) is the provision that requires obtaining 'special leave' (permission) from the High Court. Therefore, upholding this ruling would bypass that procedural filter.

Explanation

The committee was chaired by Justice Kurian Joseph, a retired Supreme Court judge. This is a direct factual recall from the article. The other names are former Chief Justices of India who are common distractors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the report proposes a new Article 3A to bar the creation of new UTs and mandate periodic referendums for existing ones, not for their creation. Statement 3 is incorrect; the proposed term is a single non-renewable five-year term, not seven years. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The committee proposes that virtually all constitutional amendments require ratification by not less than two-thirds of states representing two-thirds of India's population. This is a specific data point from the article. The other options describe existing or incorrect thresholds.

Explanation

The recommendation aims to reform the Governor's office, which the panel says has 'increasingly departed from its intended role'. By binding the President to a state-approved panel, it seeks to reduce central discretion and reinforce the Governor's role as a constitutional head acting on state advice, thereby strengthening federal principles.

Explanation

Article 94 of the Indian Constitution deals with the vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker. It specifies that the Speaker can be removed by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by an effective majority.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Speaker resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker (and vice-versa), not the President. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 96. Statement 3 is correct; the Speaker does not vacate office upon dissolution.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, while ruling that the Speaker does not enjoy immunity for inaction, indicated that a 'reasonable period' for deciding disqualification petitions is typically around three months. This prevents indefinite delays.

Explanation

By categorizing the Speaker's function under the Tenth Schedule as that of a 'Tribunal', the Supreme Court brings these decisions within the purview of judicial review under Articles 136, 226, and 227 of the Constitution. This ensures checks and balances on this power.

Explanation

Article 202 of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Governor shall cause the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) to be laid before the House or Houses of the State Legislature. This is a key feature of the state's financial procedure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The budget has an estimated surplus of ₹974 crore, not a deficit. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the ₹1,278 crore is for the 2030 Commonwealth Games infrastructure, not the 2036 Olympics. The 'Olympic Ready City' is a branding for standards, not for hosting the Olympics.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ₹500 crore will be used for developing Ahmedabad as an Olympic-ready destination and for the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (SVP) Sports Enclave. ₹1,278 crore is the total for all Games-related infrastructure, ₹1,331 crore is the total sports department allocation, and ₹165 crore is for district sports complexes.

Explanation

Mega-events like the Commonwealth Games are often used as catalysts for large-scale urban infrastructure development, global city branding, and tourism promotion. The budget mentions developing Ahmedabad as an 'Olympic Ready City' and boosting Gujarat's global profile, indicating a strategy for lasting legacy and economic spin-offs beyond the event itself.

Explanation

The Marrakesh Treaty, adopted in 2013, aims to improve access to books and other copyrighted works for visually impaired and print-disabled persons by allowing the creation and cross-border sharing of accessible format copies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Statute of Anne (1710) is widely recognized as the first copyright law. Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, copyright lasts for the author's lifetime plus 70 years after death, not 50 years. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions that the copyright industry opposed the Marrakesh Treaty due to its exceptions.

Explanation

The study found that in four out of seven countries in South and Southeast Asia, the law makes AI training illegal because they lack exceptions for text and data mining.

Explanation

The article argues that AI models require large training datasets, which often include copyrighted works. Text and data mining exceptions would allow such use without infringement, fostering innovation and AI development.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 'Joint Investment Framework' was signed between the U.S. International Development Finance Corp (DFC) and Uzbekistan. The DFC is the U.S. government's development finance institution focused on investing in projects that advance foreign policy and economic development goals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the objective is to counter China's dominance of crucial resources and supply chains, not primarily Russia's military influence. Statement 3 is correct as Uzbekistan is described as Central Asia's most populous nation with untapped reserves of lithium and tungsten.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that Uzbekistan is a 'country of almost 40 million'. The other options are close but incorrect distractors. Knowing the population sizes of major countries is a common static GK point for exams.

Explanation

The article states the agreement aims to secure U.S. access to critical minerals 'as U.S. President Donald Trump moves to counter China’s dominance of crucial resources and their supply chains.' While other options might be secondary effects, the core strategic objective is centered on geopolitics and supply chain security vis-à-vis China.

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The other acts are general environmental laws that the NGT helps enforce, but they are not its founding legislation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the case was based on a petition and a suo motu case. Statement 2 is incorrect; the nodal agency is the Maharashtra Pollution Control Board (MPCB), not CPCB. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Collector stated permissions lapsed in 2020-21, not 2023-24.

Explanation

The NGT order, as reported in the article, clearly directs the committee to 'submit its report within one month' from the hearing date (February 12, 2026).

Explanation

The core concern, as stated by green groups and the tribunal's focus, is the direct threat to public health, specifically to vulnerable cancer patients, due to environmental disturbances from mining. This links environmental protection to the fundamental right to health under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Explanation

The e-Shram portal is a national database for unorganized sector workers, launched and managed by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India, to facilitate their access to various social security benefits.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ILO is a unique tripartite UN agency. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions the ILO is working with the Global Coalition for Social Justice. Statement 3 is incorrect: The ILO was established in 1919, after World War I, as part of the Treaty of Versailles, not after World War II as part of the Bretton Woods system (which established the IMF and World Bank).

Explanation

The article explicitly states, "By 2030, AI could generate more than three million new technology jobs in India." The other options are plausible distractors but not the specific figure mentioned in the source.

Explanation

The core argument of the article is that AI transformation should be shaped to advance social justice, decent work, and shared prosperity. It calls for AI that serves people and drives inclusive social development, contrasting with objectives focused solely on profit, security, or reducing welfare.

Explanation

International agreements negotiated by the European Commission, like the proposed India-EU FTA, require approval (ratification) by the European Parliament and the European Council (comprising heads of state/government). The European Commission negotiates but does not ratify.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states it is the largest European delegation to any technology-centric event in India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly mentions the India-EU FTA was a key focus of bilateral talks. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article specifies that a total of 26 European nations were officially represented. This includes 11 heads of state/government, plus other ministerial and deputy-level representatives from other countries. The EU has 27 members, but participation included non-EU European nations like Switzerland and Liechtenstein.

Explanation

The article's context and the phrase 'vote of confidence' indicate Europe's strategic intent to deepen ties with India in critical future technologies like AI. This aligns with the global geopolitical shift where democracies seek reliable partners (trusted tech) to balance influence from other tech powers, making option B the most accurate reflection of the strategic implication.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for IT policy, electronics, and internet governance in India, including overarching AI policy frameworks. NITI Aayog released the National Strategy for AI, but MeitY is the implementing ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 'M' in MANAV stands for 'Moral and ethical systems', not 'Machine Learning'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the 'A' for 'Accessible and inclusive' includes the principle that AI should be a multiplier, not a monopoly.

Explanation

The vision was unveiled at the India AI Impact Summit 2026, as clearly mentioned in the article title and content. The other options are close distractors representing recent or future years.

Explanation

As explained by PM Modi, the 'N' (National sovereignty) pillar means 'whose data, his right'. This emphasizes data sovereignty, where control over data generated within a nation lies with that nation, a key aspect of India's data governance strategy. The other options are misinterpretations or extreme extensions of the concept.

Explanation

The CAA, 2019, specifically applies only to migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan. Including Myanmar or Sri Lanka is a common distractor. This is a fundamental fact about the Act's territorial scope.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Act covers these six communities. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CAA's cut-off date is December 31, 2014, which conflicts with the Assam Accord's March 25, 1971 date. Statement 3 is correct as the Act explicitly excludes areas under the Sixth Schedule and the Inner Line Permit regime.

Explanation

The article clearly states the Supreme Court scheduled the final hearing to begin from May 5, 2026. The hearing will continue till May 7 and resume on May 12 for rejoinder arguments. May 12 is a trap as it is for rejoinder, not the start.

Explanation

The core legal challenge is that the CAA discriminates on the basis of religion, thereby violating Article 14 (Right to Equality) and the principle of secularism, which is part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. While federalism is a secondary concern (due to bypassing states), the primary challenge is on grounds of religious discrimination.

Explanation

As per the article, the Supreme Court was hearing a plea filed by the Tamil Nadu Power Distribution Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO), which is the power distribution utility of Tamil Nadu. This is a factual recall from the news.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the CJI asked, "Will it not amount to an appeasing policy?" Statement 2 is incorrect and is the examiner's trap. The SC in the 2013 Subramaniam Balaji case did not declare all manifesto freebies unconstitutional or corrupt practices; it distinguished between welfare and irrational freebies. Statement 3 is correct as the Bench explicitly said, "States should work to open avenues for employment."

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "The power firm has challenged a rule of the Electricity Amendment Rules, 2024." This is a direct factual question testing attention to detail in the news report.

Explanation

The Court's primary concern, as quoted, is that "economic development of the nation gets hampered with this kind of largesse distribution." It further noted that States, instead of spending on development, end up spending on salaries and freebies. While other options (like inflation) could be indirect effects, the article directly quotes the Court's concern about hampering development.

Explanation

Exercise MILAN is the biennial multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy. While MALABAR is trilateral (India-US-Japan), INDRA is bilateral with Russia, and VARUNA is bilateral with France.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions 74 nations and interaction with delegations from nine ASEAN states. Statement 3 is incorrect because MILAN is associated with India's 'Act East Policy', not the 'Neighbourhood First' policy which focuses on South Asian neighbours.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Defence Minister held an interaction with visiting Navy Chiefs and delegations from nine ASEAN member states. ASEAN has 10 members, but the participation was from nine states.

Explanation

The core objective is to strengthen India's strategic and security ties with ASEAN nations, a key pillar of the 'Act East Policy'. While showcasing indigenous technology (Aatmanirbhar Bharat) is a tool, the primary goal is diplomatic and strategic integration, not direct commercial competition or cost reduction.

Explanation

The announcement was made by the Union Minister for Mines, G. Kishan Reddy, and the scheme pertains to the extraction and processing of critical minerals, which is the core mandate of the Ministry of Mines.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the four states are explicitly named. Statement 3 is incorrect; these magnets are used in electric vehicles, renewable energy, electronics, aerospace, and defence—not in conventional thermal plants or engines.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Cabinet-approved scheme is for a manufacturing capacity of 6,000 metric tons per annum. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The Minister explicitly stated that after extraction, raw materials often go to other countries for processing, and India should look to avert this dynamic and process them domestically to capture the value addition.

Explanation

The IAEA is the UN's nuclear watchdog responsible for implementing safeguards agreements under the NPT and verifying that nuclear material is not diverted for military purposes. It plays a central role in monitoring Iran's nuclear activities.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the backfilling of tunnel entrances reported by ISIS was at the Isfahan nuclear complex, not the Fordow plant. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Shiraz base suffered light damage and has not fully recovered.

Explanation

The article specifically quotes the ISIS analysis stating the chamber likely measures "approximately 36 meters long and 12 meters in diameter". Such precise dimensions are classic prelims fodder.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that backfilling tunnels and building concrete 'sarcophagi' would help dampen airstrikes and make ground access difficult for special forces. This is a deterrence and survivability strategy, not related to compliance, efficiency, or public demonstration.

Explanation

Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines the offence of rape. Section 376 prescribes the punishment for rape. Section 354 deals with assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty, and Section 377 deals with unnatural offences.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the HC did not state that partial penetration can never be rape. The Explanation to Section 375 IPC states penetration is sufficient. Statement 3 is incorrect; the SC in Babul Nath held that complete penetration is NOT necessary to establish rape.

Explanation

The trial court had convicted and sentenced the accused to rigorous imprisonment for seven years under Section 376(1) of the IPC, along with a fine of ₹200. This was the sentence that was appealed and later modified by the High Court.

Explanation

The HC held that while there was evidence of sexual assault and partial penetration, the survivor's inconsistent testimony created reasonable doubt about whether actual penetration (as required for rape under Section 375 IPC) was conclusively proven. The court emphasized the prosecution's burden to prove the offence beyond reasonable doubt.

Explanation

The news article quotes Union Mines Minister G Kishan Reddy and discusses policy measures related to mineral exploration and processing, which falls under the purview of the Ministry of Mines. This ministry oversees the National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) and related regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions only four states (Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Gujarat, and Maharashtra). Statement 3 is correct as explicitly stated in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifically states 'customs duty exemptions for 24 critical minerals'. This is a key policy measure mentioned by the minister. The other options are plausible distractors but incorrect.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes creating an 'alternative supply chain' so that 'no single country can hold a monopoly', with a veiled reference to China. The core objective is geopolitical and economic supply chain resilience, not increasing raw exports or small-scale mining.

Explanation

Article 39(b) is enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, which contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). DPSPs are guidelines for the state to establish a just social order, though they are not legally enforceable by courts like Fundamental Rights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court questioned such blanket freebies, asking if they amount to 'appeasement', not endorsing them as legitimate welfare. Statement 2 is correct as the Court stressed the need for planned budgetary allocation for subsidies. Statement 3 is correct; the petition challenged Rule 23 of the 2024 Electricity Rules.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the three-judge bench was 'presided over by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant'. The other names are former CJIs or judges, making them close distractors.

Explanation

The Court's primary concern, as quoted, was that such policies 'will only hamper the country’s development' and leave states with no money for 'roads, hospitals, schools, medical colleges'. The other options are either not the core concern mentioned or are factually incorrect in this context.

Explanation

The article explicitly states it uses data from CMIE's Economic Outlook module, which provides detailed budget allocation data from 2009 onwards. CMIE is a leading business information company known for its economic databases and surveys.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (roads & railways share ~11%). Statement 2 is incorrect; the share of the Skill Development ministry is very low (0.05%) and has declined from 0.06%. Statement 3 is correct as the article states interest payments consume 25% of expenditure (1 in 4 rupees).

Explanation

The article clearly states that the size of the Union Budget has grown by around 10.4% each year since 2009. This is a key data point for understanding the trend in government expenditure.

Explanation

MSMEs are the second-largest employer and contribute significantly to GDP (30%) and exports (45%). Low budgetary support (0.24%) limits their ability to modernize, scale up, and compete globally, thereby hampering overall economic growth, job creation, and export performance.

Explanation

Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to all persons within India. Petitioners argue that the CAA violates Article 14 by creating a religious classification for granting citizenship.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the CAA 2019 lists these six religious communities. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Act reduces the residency requirement from 11 years to 5 years, not 7 years. Statement 3 is correct as per the provisions of the Act. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the rejoinder arguments will be heard on May 12, 2026. Petitioners' arguments are scheduled for May 5 and the first half of May 6, while respondents' arguments are scheduled for the second half of May 6 and May 7.

Explanation

The Court acknowledged the distinct constitutional and historical issues in Assam and Tripura, specifically those arising from Section 6A of the Citizenship Act (which gives effect to the Assam Accord) and questions related to the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regime. These regional specificities necessitate separate legal consideration.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the project was approved by the Andhra Pradesh State Investment Promotion Board, chaired by the Chief Minister. This is the nodal body for facilitating large investments in the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions the facility will cover the 'complete battery value chain, including cell manufacturing, battery packs, and large-scale Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS).' Statement 3 is correct as it aligns with the policy and job creation mentioned. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the greenfield facility will have a capacity of 16 GWh. This is a key data point for factual recall in prelims-style questions. The other options are plausible distractors for similar projects.

Explanation

The article quotes the CM stating the project will 'play a critical role in reducing import dependence while strengthening domestic manufacturing in a strategic sector.' This aligns with India's broader goals under schemes like the ACC PLI. While supporting EVs and renewables are related benefits, the core strategic objective is self-reliance ('Atmanirbharta') in a critical technology chain.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Muwaffaq Salti Air Base is in eastern Jordan. This base hosts US attack aircraft, electronic warfare jets, and Reaper drones. Jordan is a key US ally in the region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; THAAD and Patriot systems were dispatched to the region to protect US troops, but they are not positioned 'in Iran' (they would be in allied countries like Jordan or on ships). Statement 3 is correct; Diego Garcia is mentioned as a forward deployment airfield for B-2 bombers.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions 'about 30,000 to 40,000 U.S. troops in the region.' This is a key data point for prelims-style factual questions on international security developments.

Explanation

India is heavily dependent on oil imports from the Middle East. A conflict would disrupt supplies and spike prices, impacting India's economy. Furthermore, India has a large expatriate population in the Gulf, whose safety would be a major concern, potentially requiring complex evacuation operations.

Explanation

The article states that a report by the Supreme Court's Centre for Research and Planning (CRP) titled 'Unclogging the Docket' detailed the impact of CJI Khanna's tenure. The CRP is an internal research body of the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2022 CCR spike was largely driven by CJI Chandrachud's decision to include all diarised (including unregistered) matters in pendency calculations, not just due to increased productivity. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Union Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal informed Parliament that there were 92,101 cases pending in the Supreme Court at the end of 2025. 82,674 was the pendency at the end of 2023, and 82,496 was at the end of 2024. 90,000 is a close distractor as pendency crossed this mark during 2025.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the pendency grew because case filings (75,414) grew faster than disposals (65,536). It specifically notes the institution of unregistered cases spiked to 23,033, more than double the previous year. The other options are not mentioned as reasons in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that OpenAI is teaming up with the Tata Group to improve AI infrastructure in India as part of its global Stargate initiative. This partnership focuses on developing local data centres and enterprise AI deployment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because it reverses the numbers; the project begins with 100 MW capacity and could scale up to 1 GW. Statement 3 is correct as OpenAI plans to open new offices in Mumbai and Bengaluru later in the year. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article specifies that the project will begin with 100 megawatts of capacity. The 1 Gigawatt figure is the potential scale-up target, making it a close distractor. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to develop 'AI-ready data centres designed to meet data residency and security requirements.' This ensures that advanced AI models can function within India, addressing compliance and speed concerns for local entities. While cost and education are related aspects, they are not the primary drivers mentioned.

Explanation

The World Food Programme (WFP) is headquartered in Rome, Italy, along with other UN food agencies like the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD). This forms a hub for global food security efforts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct; WFP received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect; WFP is funded by voluntary contributions from governments, corporations, and individuals, not mandatory assessed contributions. Statement 3 is correct as per its official description. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states that WFP's budget was $10 billion in 2024. After a 40% cut, it landed at around $6.4 billion in 2025, with a target of $6 billion for 2026. The other figures are distractors based on different percentages of the original budget.

Explanation

Faced with severe funding cuts, WFP is leveraging AI primarily for predictive analytics—to 'anticipate what is going to happen next' (like extreme weather events) and for early intervention. This optimizes their limited resources, saves money in supply chains, and ultimately allows them to assist more people effectively.

Explanation

The Right to Life and Personal Liberty is guaranteed under Article 21, which is enshrined in Part III of the Constitution dealing with Fundamental Rights. These are justiciable rights enforceable against the state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the core ruling was that Article 21 protection is sacrosanct for live-in couples. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court explicitly clarified that the order does not amount to judicial approval or endorsement of the legality of the relationship, and it does not grant marriage-equivalent status. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed the Mohali SSP to assess threat perception and ensure safety.

Explanation

The judgment specifically referred to the Pardeep Singh v. State of Haryana case decided on May 18, 2021, and the Rajwinder Kaur v. State of Punjab case decided on October 9, 2014. The other years correspond to other landmark Supreme Court cases on related but different aspects of live-in relationships.

Explanation

The court's ruling is fundamentally anchored in Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The judgment emphasized that this right is 'sacrosanct' and stands at the 'highest pedestal', making it applicable to all individuals irrespective of their marital status. While other articles may be peripherally relevant, Article 21 is the core legal foundation.

Explanation

The commitments were announced by Union IT Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw. The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for AI policy and digital governance in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The commitments are a voluntary, guiding framework signed by companies, not a legally binding UN treaty. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which highlights the focus on real-world insights for policymaking and multilingual evaluations for inclusivity.

Explanation

The article lists Sarvam, Gnani, Bharatgen, and Soket AI as Indian signatories. Zoho, a major Indian software company, was not mentioned among the signatories in this report.

Explanation

The article states that the commitments are in line with India's central pitch to counter AI concentration and democratize the technology. The focus on multilingual support and Global South contexts directly serves this objective of inclusive and accessible AI development.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's pitch is "in line with India’s G20 narrative" and a way to "assert its dominance in the Global South." This positions the summit as an extension of India's recent diplomatic focus on representing developing nations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article clarifies the proposed framework would be "voluntary and non-binding." Statement 2 is correct: India aims to counter proprietary Western models by promoting open-source AI. Statement 3 is correct: The 'Trusted AI Commons' is mentioned as a voluntary collaborative platform.

Explanation

The article includes an image caption specifying "Bharat Mandapam, the venue of the India AI Impact Summit 2026, in New Delhi." This is a factual detail important for prelims. Bharat Mandapam in Pragati Maidan has recently hosted major international events like the G20 Summit.

Explanation

The article quotes an official saying the goal is for AI to "genuinely uplift all sections of society" by enabling access to knowledge and opportunities. It positions this against Western concentration of AI, aiming to make it affordable and accessible, which aligns with the interests of the Global South.