17 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

GTRE is a premier laboratory under the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), focused on developing aero gas turbine engines. ISRO works on space, CSIR on civilian industrial research, and DAE on nuclear energy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Kaveri engine was developed for the LCA Tejas. Statement 2 is incorrect: The deadline set is 5-7 years, not 10-12 years. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions GTRE is conducting a joint study with the UK.

Explanation

The Defence Minister explicitly stated, "We must assume that 20 years have already passed and we now have only 5-7 years left." The other options are plausible distractors based on typical project timelines.

Explanation

The minister emphasized that "Supply chains are breaking... Nations possessing indigenous critical technologies will remain safe, secure, and sustain themselves." While cost reduction and exports may be secondary benefits, the core objective is strategic autonomy and supply chain security.

Explanation

In the landmark Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union Of India case (2017), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act amends Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, replacing the conditional exemption with an absolute bar on 'personal information'. Statement 2 is incorrect: The maximum penalty under the Act is ₹250 crore, not ₹500 crore. Statement 3 is correct: The Act's definition of 'data fiduciary' is broad enough to include journalists processing personal data for their work, as highlighted in the petitions.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the DPDP Act prescribes high penalties 'rising up to Rs 250 crore'. This is a key data point for prelims. The other figures are plausible distractors given the scale of penalties in other regulations.

Explanation

The petitions argue that the Act's restrictions on the Right to Information and press freedom fail the 'proportionality test' established in the Puttaswamy judgment. This test requires that any law restricting fundamental rights must pursue a legitimate aim, be the least restrictive means, and have in-built safeguards. The other doctrines, while important in constitutional law, are not the central argument highlighted in the article.

Explanation

Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The court held that wrongful arrest due to mistaken identity is a direct violation of this fundamental right. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 19 with freedoms, and Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies from the Supreme Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the judgment emphasized that 'an existence of the power to arrest is one thing; the justification for the exercise of it is quite another.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the judgment explicitly cited Supreme Court precedents like Satendra Kumar Antil and Arnesh Kumar. Statement 3 is correct; the court directed the Police Commissioner of Lucknow and the SP of Sitapur to initiate action and submit a report.

Explanation

The court directed the Police Commissioner of Lucknow and the Superintendent of Police, Sitapur, to initiate appropriate action against the responsible officers and to submit a compliance report within two months. This specific timeline is a key factual takeaway from the judgment.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is the protection of personal liberty under Article 21 from arbitrary state action. It reinforces that police power to arrest is not absolute and must be justified, preventing mechanical deprivation of liberty. The other options, while important constitutional principles, are not the central focus of this specific ruling.

Explanation

As per the article, the project is being implemented by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation (ANIIDCO). NITI Aayog conceived the project, but the executing agency is ANIIDCO.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the NGT did NOT reject the clearance; it cleared the project, stating it found no good ground to interfere. Statement 3 is correct; the Shompen are a PVTG residing on Great Nicobar.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the fertiliser subsidy is about ₹2 trillion, making it the second largest subsidy in the Union Budget. The other figures are distractors not mentioned in the context.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions the 'strategic importance' of the project, aligning it with India's Maritime Vision 2030. The project includes an international container transshipment terminal and a dual-use airport, which are aimed at bolstering India's strategic and maritime capabilities in a vital region.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry responsible for India's foreign policy and diplomatic relations, including the formulation and coordination of bilateral strategic partnerships. Its spokesperson, Randhir Jaiswal, commented on the partnership in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the joint venture is between Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Safran, not DRDO. Statement 3 is incorrect: the assembly line is in Karnataka, not Maharashtra.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the delivery of the first 'Made in India' H125 is expected in early 2027. The other options are plausible distractors for long-term aerospace projects but are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

PM Modi stated that "this partnership will provide stability and progress" in "this era of unpredictable global dynamics." The partnership is strategic and broad-based, not a narrow military alliance, a sector-specific investment push, or a replacement for other ties.

Explanation

The article specifies that AAV9, a harmless virus repurposed as a delivery vehicle, was used to deliver prime-editing components into newborn mice in the study. AAV vectors are commonly used in gene therapy due to their low pathogenicity and ability to target various tissues.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Nonsense mutations account for ~25% of disease-causing changes. Statement 2 is incorrect: PERT uses prime editing (not CRISPR-Cas9), which does not create double-strand breaks but directly writes new genetic code. Statement 3 is correct: The article states that 1.7-7% restoration in mouse models is known to meaningfully reduce disease severity.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the PERT combination (PE6c enzyme with PE3 strategy) achieved 60-80% editing efficiency in cultured human cells, which is unusually high for multi-base genomic edits. It contrasts this with the typical 10-20% efficiency of homology-directed repair.

Explanation

The core innovation of PERT is its 'gene-agnostic' nature. Instead of designing a unique therapy for each specific nonsense mutation (a slow and expensive process), PERT aims to treat many such disorders with a single editing strategy by reprogramming a universal cellular component (tRNA) to override premature stop signals.

Explanation

The National Statistical Office (NSO), under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), is responsible for compiling macroeconomic data like the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Gross Domestic Product (GDP). The RBI uses this data for its policy decisions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states food share in PFCE is around 31% in nominal terms, which is lower than the new CPI weight of 36.8%. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article argues that lower food weight (and higher core weight) makes monetary policy more effective, not less.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new CPI index shows inflation at 2.8 per cent in January. This is a key data point from the news. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The article concludes that with food (a volatile component) having lower weight, headline inflation becomes less volatile. Given that core inflation has been higher and now has greater weight, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is expected to maintain a prolonged pause on interest rates. The article does not predict a rate cut or increased WPI relevance.

Explanation

The DRDO, through its Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), is the lead agency for designing and developing India's indigenous fighter aircraft, including the Tejas LCA and the upcoming AMCA. HAL is the production partner, not the lead developer.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: AMCA is indeed India's indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter project. Statement 2 is incorrect: The target induction year is 2035, not 2030. Statement 3 is incorrect: HAL was NOT shortlisted for prototype development; three private sector-led consortia were shortlisted. HAL was disqualified due to a paperwork error.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the AMCA project 'is expected to produce over 125 fighter jets'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The core strategic move is to build a competitive domestic ecosystem for advanced defence technology. While cost and timelines are factors, the fundamental shift is towards involving private industry in high-end R&D, moving beyond the traditional model of DPSU-led development. It aligns with the broader 'Strategic Partnership' policy.

Explanation

The National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency for conducting large-scale surveys like the PLFS, Economic Census, and Consumer Expenditure Surveys.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Rural UR rose from 3.9% to 4.2% and Urban UR from 6.7% to 7.0%. Statement 2 is incorrect: Overall LFPR declined from 56.1% to 55.9%. Statement 3 is incorrect: The NSO stated the rise was 'primarily rural-driven' due to post-harvest seasonal factors, not urban industrial.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the urban unemployment rate increased to 7.0% in January 2026 from 6.7% in December 2025. Option A is the previous month's figure, C is the rural UR, and D is the all-India UR.

Explanation

A declining LFPR means fewer people are actively looking for or available for work. When this happens alongside rising unemployment, it can indicate that people are dropping out of the labour force due to discouragement, which is not captured by the unemployment rate alone, thus presenting an incomplete picture of joblessness.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for India's AI policy and initiatives, including the organization of the AI Impact Summit. MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan and Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw have been prominently involved in the summit's announcements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the article states it is the fourth AI summit globally (after UK, South Korea, France), not the first hosted by India. Statement 2 is incorrect because the thematic pillars are People, Planet, and Progress, not Profit. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article that an IT Ministry official stated the summit would yield a minimum of 15 deliverables.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the summit is hosted from February 16 to 20, 2026, which is a duration of five days. The other options are close distractors based on common event durations.

Explanation

The article highlights India's role in democratizing AI technology for the Global South and mentions UN Chief Guterres praising India for assuming leadership. The summit's scale and thematic focus on inclusive governance align with this objective of shaping global norms, rather than the more narrow goals listed in other options.

Explanation

The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is responsible for formulating and implementing India's foreign trade policy and releases monthly merchandise trade data. The RBI releases balance of payments and detailed services data.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the US announced a tariff cut from 50% to 18%, not an increase. Statement 3 is correct as the services trade surplus was $24.30 billion. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

Gold imports in January 2026 rose sharply to $12.07 billion from $4.13 billion in December. $34.68 billion is the overall trade deficit, and $6.58 billion is the export value to the US.

Explanation

US President Donald Trump stated that India had agreed to cut Russian oil purchases and intended to more than double its annual imports of US goods, which was linked to the tariff relief. This highlights the interconnection of trade with geopolitical energy choices.

Explanation

In the S.R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court held that federalism is a basic feature of the Indian Constitution. While Kesavananda Bharati established the Basic Structure doctrine, it was Bommai that specifically included federalism within it. This is a crucial static GK point for Polity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Rajamannar Committee (1969-71) was indeed the first such state-level committee. Statement 2 is correct: The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 and reported in 1988. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Punchhi Commission was constituted in 2007 (not 2005) and submitted its report in 2010 (not 2009).

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Part I of the Committee's report was submitted on February 16, 2026. The committee was constituted in April 2025. This precise date is a key factual takeaway from the news.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that a centralized model cannot tailor policies sensitively to India's vast linguistic, ecological, and economic diversity. Decentralization allows states to experiment, contain failures locally, and allow successful innovations to diffuse. This is presented as a functional necessity, not just a political demand.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages the government bond market, including the issuance of government securities (G-Secs) and the framework for primary dealers. SEBI regulates the corporate bond market.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Indian banks hold 60-65% of corporate debt vs 30% in the US. Statement 2 is incorrect: The government bond market is ~90% of GDP, while the corporate bond market is only 15-16%. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly links concentrated bank risk to impeded monetary policy transmission.

Explanation

The article states India's corporate bond market is around 15%-16% of GDP. This is a key data point highlighting its shallowness compared to the US (over 80%) and China (45-50%).

Explanation

The core argument of the article is that Budget 2026 measures aim to correct a structural imbalance by developing bond markets and using instruments like guarantees and REITs to move risks away from overburdened bank balance sheets and into the markets.

Explanation

The Urban Challenge Fund falls under the purview of urban development and municipal governance, which is the mandate of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). This ministry oversees schemes and policies related to urban infrastructure, housing, and local body empowerment.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Centre covers 25% if cities raise at least 50% via bonds, loans, or PPPs. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions a ₹5,000 crore guarantee for smaller cities. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs stated the eligibility criteria are still 'under examination', not finalized.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Urban Challenge Fund includes a '₹5,000 crore guarantee' which may ease borrowing for smaller cities. The other options are plausible but incorrect figures not mentioned in the context.

Explanation

The editorial argues that requiring cities to 'earn' their growth through market access risks creating inequality, as cities with weak administrative capacity, poor land records, and low creditworthiness will be left behind. This shifts focus from essential services to monetizable assets, potentially harming equitable development.

Explanation

The Munich Security Conference (MSC) is a major annual forum on international security policy. It is a venue for diplomats, military officials, and policymakers to discuss pressing security challenges, making it central to global defence diplomacy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The German Chancellor said the order 'no longer exists', not that it is weakening. Statement 2 is incorrect. The U.S. Secretary of State emphasized shared history and Christian cultural linkages, not strategic interests. Statement 3 is correct, as the article explicitly mentions this post-WWII dependence as unsustainable.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the largest land conflict since the end of the Second World War has been raging on its eastern flank for four years.' This refers to the Russia-Ukraine war, contextualizing its prolonged duration as of 2026.

Explanation

The editorial's core argument is that Europe must reduce its unsustainable dependence on the U.S. and build strategic autonomy. It further concludes that Europe should 'help rebuild [the international order] by working with countries beyond the West,' emphasizing global engagement.

Explanation

The Ministry of Steel is the nodal ministry for the steel sector in India. As per the article, it constituted the 14 task forces and is spearheading the creation of the Green Steel Taxonomy and the decarbonisation roadmap.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clarifies that steel accounts for ~18% of project cost, so a 30% steel premium leads to only a ~5.5% overall cost increase. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the 3-, 4-, 5-star rating system. Statement 3 is incorrect as coking coal imports exceed 50 million tonnes annually.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Steel typically accounts for about 18% of large infrastructure projects'. This data point is crucial for understanding the financial impact of the green premium.

Explanation

The article highlights 'dual pressures' from the EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) and volatile prices of imported coking coal. Transitioning to green steel is thus framed as a strategy for national economic security, bypassing future carbon tariffs and reducing exposure to fossil fuel market shocks.

Explanation

The committee was constituted in April 2025 with retired Supreme Court judge Justice Kurian Joseph as its chairperson. The other names are current or former Chief Justices of India not associated with this specific committee.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Rajamannar Committee (1969-71) was the first such committee constituted by Tamil Nadu. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's mention of the objective to 'right-size' the Union. Statement 3 is correct; the article states Part I has been submitted and two further parts are under preparation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the committee marks the fourth major national-level review and the second undertaken by Tamil Nadu, which earlier led the discourse through the Rajamannar Committee (1969–71).

Explanation

The official release quoted in the article states the report advances recommendations aimed at 'restoring federal balance and strengthening genuine cooperative federalism within the constitutional framework'. The other options are extreme measures not mentioned or implied in the report's stated objectives.

Explanation

The NCRTC is a joint venture of the Government of India and the states of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, specifically mandated to implement the RRTS network in the National Capital Region.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states UP accounts for 55% of India's expressway network, not the national highway network. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Delhi-Ghaziabad-Meerut Namo Bharat corridor is 82 km long, connecting Sarai Kale Khan in Delhi to Modipuram in Meerut. 23 km is the length of the Meerut Metro.

Explanation

As stated by the Chief Minister, the unit is a significant step towards making Uttar Pradesh a hub for high-technology manufacturing, aligning with national self-reliance goals in electronics.

Explanation

The Taiwan Relations Act (TRA) of 1979 is the key US law that governs unofficial relations with Taiwan after the US switched diplomatic recognition to the People's Republic of China. It legally commits the US to provide Taiwan with arms of a defensive character and to view any threat to Taiwan as of 'grave concern'.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The US 'One-China Policy' acknowledges the Chinese position that Taiwan is part of China but does not officially recognize Taiwan as a sovereign country. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Taiwan Relations Act commits the US to provide defensive arms and consider threats to Taiwan's peace a danger to the region, but it does not mandate automatic military defense. This is the essence of 'strategic ambiguity'. Statement 3 is correct; this is a standard formulation in China's official statements and laws like the Anti-Secession Law.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The United States approved $11-billion worth of arms to Taiwan in December, Taipei said.' This is a precise data point that can be directly tested in a Prelims-style question.

Explanation

The core of the US 'strategic ambiguity' policy, supported by arms sales under the Taiwan Relations Act, is to deter a Chinese invasion (unilateral change by force) while also discouraging Taiwan from declaring formal independence (another unilateral change). The goal is to preserve the existing, uneasy status quo. The other options represent actions that would directly contravene stated US policy and escalate conflict.

Explanation

The SEED (Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs) is an initiative of the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. This ministry handles welfare schemes for marginalized communities including DNTs, OBCs, and SCs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as DNTs are communities that were branded as criminal under the colonial Criminal Tribes Act of 1871. Statement 2 is correct; the Act was repealed in 1952 after Independence. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Idate Commission submitted its report in 2017, not 2008. The 2008 report was by the Renke Commission.

Explanation

The Idate Commission report of 2017 identified close to 1,200 communities as Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs). This is a key data point for understanding the scale of the community. The report also noted that 268 of these were unclassified.

Explanation

The SEED scheme requires beneficiaries to be identified as DNTs through a certificate. The article highlights that government data shows only select districts in about half a dozen states issue these certificates. This administrative hurdle prevents identification and access to scheme benefits, leading to underutilization of the allocated ₹200 crore.

Explanation

The National Cooling Action Plan (NCAP), launched in 2019, specifically aims to provide sustainable cooling access while reducing environmental impact through energy-efficient technologies like District Cooling Systems. While other plans may have tangential links, NCAP is the primary policy framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; District Cooling systems centralize equipment and can cut refrigerant volumes in buildings by up to 80%, not increase them. Statement 3 is correct as fewer outdoor units spewing hot air can help lower local temperatures.

Explanation

The article states that lower electricity use in District Cooling systems means greenhouse gas emissions can fall by roughly 15-40%. The other options are distractors related to other efficiencies mentioned, like electricity use reduction (30-50%) or refrigerant volume reduction (up to 80%).

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that not having to install separate chillers and cooling towers saves developers 5-10% of project cost and frees up space (1-2% extra usable/saleable area). The other options are not mentioned as benefits.

Explanation

The news article explicitly mentions the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007. This Act provides for the constitution of maintenance tribunals for the speedy disposal of maintenance applications filed by senior citizens.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court specifically observed that NOT every conflict attracts the Act's jurisdiction. Statement 2 is correct, as the court identified 'proven inability to maintain' as the key jurisdictional fact under Section 4. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court noted the father lived separately, and the eviction property was not his residence.

Explanation

The judgment explicitly cites Section 4(1) and 4(2) of the Act. Section 4(1) creates the entitlement for a senior citizen to make an application for maintenance under Section 5, and Section 4(2) creates the obligation on offspring to maintain the senior citizen parent. Section 5 deals with the procedure for application, and Section 23 deals with voiding property transfers.

Explanation

The court's core ruling is that the 'inability to maintain oneself' is not just a condition but a 'jurisdictional fact'. This means the maintenance tribunal lacks the authority to grant relief (like eviction or maintenance) unless this foundational fact is first established with evidence, thereby preventing misuse of the Act for mere property disputes.

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body in the Ministry of Defence for capital acquisitions. It is chaired by the Raksha Mantri (Defence Minister) of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The dialogue is in Bengaluru and coincides with French President Emmanuel Macron's visit. Statement 2 is incorrect: The defence pact is to be renewed for 10 years, not 15 years. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the virtual inauguration of the Tata-Airbus H125 helicopter assembly line in Kolar's Vemagal district.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Defence Acquisition Council cleared the purchase of 114 Rafale fighters at a cost of ₹3.25 lakh crore. This is a key data point for Prelims.

Explanation

The shift from direct purchase to joint manufacturing and technology transfer in defence, as seen in the Hammer missile JV, is a core objective of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat (Self-Reliant India) campaign in the defence sector.

Explanation

The AMCA is a DRDO-led project, with its Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) as the design agency. HAL is the production partner for many aircraft but DRDO is the lead R&D agency for such advanced defence projects.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the AMCA. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions these three countries as having fifth-gen fighters, and India aims to join this club. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states that three consortia, not four, have been shortlisted.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions three consortia: TATA Advanced Systems Ltd (standalone), a consortium of Larsen & Toubro and Bharat Electronics Ltd, and a Bharat Forge-BEML Ltd-Data Patterns consortium.

Explanation

While fleet modernization is a goal, the core strategic objective is to develop indigenous capability in cutting-edge defence technology, reducing dependency on foreign imports and enhancing strategic autonomy, a key theme of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative. Export and collaboration are potential outcomes, not the primary objective.

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) compiles and publishes the 'Handbook of Statistics on Indian States'. It is a key source for state-level financial and economic data, including GSDP, fiscal indicators, and banking statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Maharashtra leads with a GSDP of ₹45.32 lakh crore. Statement 2 is correct: Uttar Pradesh (₹29.78 lakh crore) overtook Karnataka (₹28.84 lakh crore) to rank 3rd. Statement 3 is incorrect: Delhi, with a GSDP of ₹12.15 lakh crore, ranks 10th.

Explanation

The article states that India's real GDP is projected to expand by 7.4 per cent in the current fiscal year (FY 2024-25), up from 6.5 per cent in the previous one. The 7.3% figure is the IMF's forecast for 2026.

Explanation

Article 38 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to strive to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas. The wide GSDP gap between states reflects regional economic inequality, which this principle aims to address.

Explanation

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002, to prevent anti-competitive practices, promote competition, protect consumer interests, and ensure freedom of trade. SEBI regulates securities markets, RBI regulates banking and monetary policy, and NCLT adjudicates company law matters.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The abusive policy lasted from 25 April 2016 to 1 April 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: The policy was discriminatory against Indian consumers, while warranty policies in China and Australia did not have similar restrictive conditions. Statement 3 is correct: The CCI held Intel in contravention of Sections 4(2)(a)(i), (b)(i), and (c) of the Competition Act for abuse of dominant position.

Explanation

The CCI imposed a total penalty of ₹27.38 crore on Intel Corporation. The other figures are close distractors. The exact figure is a key data point from the news, testing attention to detail for prelims-style factual questions.

Explanation

The core finding was that the policy denied warranty service for genuine Intel microprocessors imported through parallel channels. This created an 'Appreciable Adverse Effect on Competition' by protecting authorised distributors from cheaper parallel imports, thereby foreclosing the market to competitors and reducing options for Indian consumers.

Explanation

The EPFO is a statutory body under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, established by the EPF Act, 1952. It administers the mandatory provident fund, pension, and insurance schemes for organized sector workers. ESIC administers health insurance, NPS Trust manages the pension scheme for government employees, and the Labour Bureau collects labour statistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court upheld the ₹2.09 crore liability. Statement 2 is incorrect; the court ruled the beedi rollers were indirectly employed by the principal company (Seyadu Beedi), not the intermediary trader. The intermediary was seen as a facade. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment highlighted the EPF Act's nature as a beneficial welfare legislation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the court upheld the EPF contribution liability of ₹2.09 crore in respect of 700 beedi rollers. This is a specific factual data point from the news. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

A 'beneficial legislation' is designed for the welfare of a specific vulnerable group (here, employees). Courts interpret such laws broadly and purposively to maximize their protective reach, often looking beyond technicalities to secure the intended benefit for the worker. This principle was central to the court's decision to include indirectly engaged beedi rollers.

Explanation

The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) is a statutory body established by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023. Its primary mandate is to seed, grow, and promote R&D in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states China has created 'parallel pathways' and 'has not abandoned fundamental science'. Statement 2 is correct as the article highlights the mismatch between doctoral training and field realities. Statement 3 is correct as the ANRF and RDI push aim to align research with mentioned national priorities.

Explanation

The article explicitly lists water, energy, agriculture, health, materials, electronics, climate adaptation, space, and defence as sectors for mission-mode programmes. Tourism and Hospitality is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article argues that metrics like publication counts and citations, which drive rankings and careers, incentivise researchers to optimise for academic visibility rather than producing 'tested solutions' and outcomes that matter for society, such as field performance and long-term reliability.

Explanation

The India AI Mission falls under the purview of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which is the nodal ministry for policies related to information technology, electronics, and the internet. The announcement was made by its minister, Ashwini Vaishnaw.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the order is for 20,000 GPUs (not 38,000; 38,000 is the existing count). Statement 3 is correct, as the article mentions India has created a DPI-like structure for its AI mission. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that an order for 20,000 GPUs will be placed within a week. The figure of 38,000 GPUs is the existing count, making it a close distractor. The other options are not mentioned.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated by the minister, is to build consensus for the ethical and proper use of AI to benefit humanity and contain harms. This reflects a balanced governance approach. The other options are either too narrow (C, D) or not mentioned (A) as primary objectives.

Explanation

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal agency for India's foreign policy and diplomatic relations. It coordinates all high-level visits of foreign dignitaries and the implementation of international agreements.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Horizon 2047 roadmap was unveiled in July 2023 in Paris, not during the 2026 visit. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the assembly line inaugurated was for the Airbus H125, not the H145 model. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Explanation

The Horizon 2047 roadmap was unveiled in July 2023 during Prime Minister Modi's visit to France. It is a 25-year plan leading up to the centenary of India's independence in 2047. The year 2026 is the year of the current visit mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The assembly line represents a move from a buyer-seller relationship to one involving technology transfer and local manufacturing, aligning with India's 'Make in India' and 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' goals in defence. While it may reduce some import dependence (Option A), the core significance is the shift in the nature of the partnership. Options C and D are extreme or incorrect interpretations.

Explanation

Sustainable Development Goal 4 aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education for all. The Bharat AI Education Stack's objective of providing personalized AI tutoring to every child directly targets equitable and accessible education, making SDG 4 the correct linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The summit was held at Bharat Mandapam, not Vigyan Bhavan (this is a trap). Statement 2 is incorrect: The B.Tech program focuses on engineering creation and building systems; it is the online BS program that focuses on application. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions IIT Madras is working on opening up large-scale datasets such as the brain research database and the cancer atlas to allow for massive AI-driven research and intervention. The other options, while plausible, are not mentioned.

Explanation

In the interview, the Director states that the initiative 'echoes Swami Vivekananda’s idea that if the poor cannot reach education, education must reach the poor.' This directly links the modern technological initiative to a foundational Indian philosophical thought on equity in education.

Explanation

The article quotes S Krishnan, Secretary of MeitY, discussing the AI transition for MSMEs. MeitY is the nodal ministry for IT, electronics, and internet governance, including AI policy formulation under initiatives like Digital India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states only about one-fifth of the over 76 million MSMEs are in manufacturing, not all. Statement 3 is correct as the study was launched by Athena Infonomics with NISG and line ministries of MSMEs, textiles, and pharmaceuticals.

Explanation

The article specifically states "over 76 million in number, of which about one-fifth are in manufacturing." This is a precise data point for factual recall. The other options are common distractors.

Explanation

S Krishnan, Secretary of MeitY, explicitly stated that smaller enterprises in traditional sectors "may or may not necessarily be in the position to make the kind of investments which are needed." While other options may be related challenges, the article highlights financing as the key barrier compared to large enterprises.

Explanation

The SAHI framework was released by the Union Health Ministry, as stated in the article. While other ministries may have overlapping interests in AI, the specific application to healthcare falls under the Health Ministry's domain.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sunil Kumar Barnwal, CEO of the National Health Authority, headed the committee. Statement 2 is incorrect: BODH is a federated platform where data is not directly accessed by developers; models are sent for on-site training. Statement 3 is incorrect: India is the first in the Southeast Asia region, not globally.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions consultations in Vijaywada, Delhi, Shillong, and Mumbai. Chennai was not listed among the consultation cities, making it the correct answer for the 'NOT' question.

Explanation

As explained by IIT Kanpur's director, BODH is designed to overcome the challenge of fragmented and privacy-sensitive health data. It is a federated platform that keeps data secure, allows model training on-site, and incentivizes data holders, without giving developers direct data access.

Explanation

As per the constitutional protocol in parliamentary democracies like Bangladesh, the oath of office to the Prime Minister and ministers is administered by the President. In this news, President Mohammed Shahabuddin administered the oath.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Tarique Rahman of BNP became PM after winning the 13th parliamentary elections. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Awami League was ousted after a massive student-led uprising in 2024, not a military coup. Statement 3 is correct: The constitution reserves 50 seats for women, distributed proportionally among winning parties.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP) won 212 seats in the 350-member parliament. The Jamaat-e-Islami-led coalition won 77 seats. The other options are plausible distractors based on other election results in the region.

Explanation

The primary implication is geopolitical. A new government, especially one led by BNP which has had different historical alignments compared to the Awami League, may recalibrate its foreign policy between India and China, impacting regional security dynamics. Specific treaties or economic outcomes are not automatic and would require diplomatic engagement.

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by Justice Narendra Kumar Vyas of the Chhattisgarh High Court. High Courts have appellate jurisdiction over decisions of district courts within their state.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The court held ejaculation without penetration constitutes attempted rape, not rape. Statement 2 is correct: The court mentioned Section 428 CrPC for set-off. Statement 3 is correct: The conviction was modified from rape (S.376) to attempted rape (S.376/511).

Explanation

The High Court reduced the sentence from the original 7 years to 3 years and 6 months of rigorous imprisonment under IPC Section 376 read with Section 511. The original 7-year sentence was for the offence of rape.

Explanation

The court reiterated that penetration is the indispensable element (sine qua non) for establishing the offence of rape under IPC Section 376. Without conclusive proof of penetration, the act may amount to attempted rape under Section 511.

Explanation

Entry 24 in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule is 'Welfare of labour, including conditions of work, provident funds, employers' liability, workmen's compensation, invalidity and old age pensions and maternity benefits.' This allows both the Centre and States to legislate on it, which is why Karnataka could pass its own Act for gig workers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The fee is a minimum of 1% of the transaction, not a flat 5%. The Act specified a range of 1% to 5%, but the notification sets the minimum at 1%. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: fees go to the Gig Workers Welfare Fund. Statement 3 is correct; the Act was passed in August 2025.

Explanation

The article states: 'For heavy commercial vehicles used in logistics services, the cap is set at Rs 1.50.' The caps are ₹0.50 for two-wheelers, ₹0.75 for three-wheelers, ₹1 for four-wheelers/cabs, and ₹1.50 for heavy commercial vehicles.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the article, is to fund social security for delivery partners and drivers. The fee contributes to a dedicated Gig Workers Welfare Fund established for this purpose. While it may impact platform costs, revenue generation or price regulation are not the stated primary goals.

Explanation

The Information Technology Act, 2000, and the rules framed under it, including the Intermediary Guidelines, are administered by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). This ministry is the nodal agency for IT policy and regulation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the rules define 'synthetically generated information'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the reduction is from 36 hours to 3 hours for takedown notices (grievance removal time is reduced from 72 to 36 hours). Statement 3 is correct; the article cites the Shreya Singhal case to highlight concerns about vague terms leading to free speech restrictions.

Explanation

The 2026 Rules mandate intermediaries to comply with a takedown notice within 3 hours, a significant reduction from the earlier 36-hour period specified in the 2021 Rules. This is a key factual data point from the news.

Explanation

The core criticism, as detailed in the article, is that forcing rapid takedowns with vague definitions leads to over-censorship by intermediaries. This 'chilling effect' can unduly restrict the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. The article directly links this to the Supreme Court's reasoning in the Shreya Singhal case.

Explanation

The Court held the reclassification arbitrary (violating Article 14 - Right to Equality) and infringing upon the right to a clean environment, which is part of the right to life under Article 21. While Articles 48A (Directive Principle) and 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty) relate to the environment, they were not the primary constitutional provisions cited for quashing the executive action in this specific instance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the core violation was of the Master Plan under the PRTPD Act. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court actually struck down the CPCB's 2025 reclassification from 'Red' to 'Orange', not upheld it. Statement 3 is correct, as the judgment explicitly stated that conditions or investments cannot override statutory prohibitions.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions the CLU was for establishing a cement grinding unit on approximately 47.82 acres of land. The other options are plausible distractors for a land area question.

Explanation

The Court emphasized that where foreseeable health risks exist (like particulate pollution from cement units), regulators must err on the side of protection. Downgrading safeguards from 'Red' to 'Orange' without scientific justification violated this precautionary principle. The other principles, while important, were not the central focus of this specific aspect of the judgment.

Explanation

The MeghRaj initiative, also known as GI Cloud, is the Government of India's cloud computing platform developed and operated by the National Informatics Centre (NIC). NIC is the premier technology advisor and IT solution provider to the government.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the hybrid architecture's key feature is to keep sensitive workloads within secure NIC data centres (on-premises) while accessing AWS capabilities, not moving all data to the public cloud. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions enabling elastic scaling beyond on-premises capacity constraints.

Explanation

The article states the announcement was made amid the ongoing AI Impact Summit 2026, hosted by India at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi from February 16 to February 20. This is a specific, testable fact from the news.

Explanation

The core innovation is the hybrid model. Sensitive workloads remain within the secure, sovereign environment of NIC data centres (addressing data residency/security), while these local 'Outposts' can seamlessly tap into the broader suite of AWS cloud services like AI, analytics, and storage. This balances control with capability.

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body for defence procurement in India. It is headed by the Defence Minister, as per the Defence Procurement Procedure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the MoU signed was for the manufacturing of Hammer missiles, not Brahmos missiles. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) cleared the acquisition of 114 Rafale aircraft, of which 90 are to be manufactured in India, as stated in the article. This is a key figure highlighting the 'Make in India' component of the deal.

Explanation

Establishing local MRO (Maintenance, Repair, Overhaul) facilities ensures faster turnaround for servicing, reduces dependence on foreign vendors for spares and repairs, and significantly cuts down the long-term operational and maintenance costs, thereby enhancing strategic autonomy and operational readiness.

Explanation

The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India (ORGI) is responsible for conducting the Census. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. MoSPI is involved in sample surveys like NSSO, while the Census is a statutory exercise under the MHA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The houselisting phase collects data on housing conditions, amenities, and assets, not individual demographic details. Demographic data is collected in the Population Enumeration phase. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which mentions a mobile app and the February 2027 schedule for population enumeration.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Over 40,000 employees will be trained'. The other options are close distractors to test precise factual recall, a common Prelims tactic for administrative data.

Explanation

The houselisting phase is designed to create a comprehensive inventory of all census houses and households. This physical frame ensures no household is missed during the main Population Enumeration phase where demographic data is collected. The official count and caste data are part of the second phase.

Explanation

The article states the petitioner sought to set aside an order from March 2018 passed by a family court in Vijayawada. Family Courts, established under the Family Courts Act, 1984, have jurisdiction over matters related to marriage and family, including maintenance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court called maintenance a 'personal liability imposed upon the husband'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the judgment linked maintenance to Article 15(3) (Fundamental Rights) AND Article 39 (Directive Principles), not exclusively to Fundamental Rights. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions this Supreme Court case was observed by the apex court in the context of maintenance being a measure of social justice.

Explanation

The family court had directed the petitioner to pay ₹7,500 per month to his wife and ₹5,000 per month to their son. The sum total is ₹12,500 per month. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

By grounding the right to maintenance in constitutional principles (Article 15(3) for special provisions for women/children and Article 39 for economic justice), the judgment reinforces that the state's duty and the individual's obligation are part of a larger framework of social justice, moving beyond just personal law contracts. The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The IndiaAI Mission is a flagship initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). MeitY is responsible for policy matters relating to information technology, electronics, and the Internet.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the allocation was reduced from ₹2,000 crore to ₹1,000 crore. Statement 3 is correct, highlighting the environmental concerns of massive electricity (160 MW) and water use (25.5 million litres per MW per year) by data centres.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the allocation for the IndiaAI Mission has been reduced from Rs 2,000 crore to Rs 1,000 crore. This is a key data point for factual recall in prelims.

Explanation

The article's core analysis warns that offering long-term fiscal concessions and market access to foreign hyperscalers, without clear guarantees of technology transfer or domestic IP creation, risks making India merely a 'hosting ground' and undermines technological sovereignty.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India, an independent constitutional body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article highlights AI's potential for voter roll management and fraud detection. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states that the RPA, 1951, predates such technology and lacks provisions for AI-generated content. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the threats from microtargeting and deepfakes, particularly in the critical 48 hours before polling.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that India, as the world's largest democracy, has 970 million eligible voters. This is a key demographic and administrative fact for the Election Commission.

Explanation

The article proposes an immediate action of creating an AI Task Force combining electoral, data science, and cybersecurity expertise. Its core objective is real-time monitoring of threats like deepfakes and bot networks, and developing corresponding detection systems to safeguard electoral integrity.

Explanation

The Armed Forces Tribunal is a statutory body established under the Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007. It is not constituted under the Administrative Tribunals Act (which is for central government employees) or the Defence Services Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The soldier was discharged after a RMB found him suffering from Schizophrenia (not fit). Statement 2 is incorrect: The AFT GRANTED the pension in 2022; the High Court upheld this AFT order. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court placed the burden of proof on the military authorities, not the ex-serviceman.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Release Medical Board (RMB) assessed the soldier as suffering from Schizophrenia with a 40 per cent disability for life. The Armed Forces Tribunal later rounded this off to 50% for pension calculation.

Explanation

The core legal principle established is that if a disability manifests during service (and the person was fit at enrolment), the authorities must prove it was 'neither attributable to nor aggravated by' service to deny pension. This places the evidentiary burden on the establishment, not the veteran.