16 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion, subject to public order, morality, and health. The Sabarimala case involves the interpretation of this Article concerning the restriction on women's entry based on religious practice.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the review hearing will be conducted by a 9-judge Constitution Bench, not a 7-judge Bench. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct; the 2019 judgment had clubbed similar petitions on Muslim women's mosque entry and FGM with the Sabarimala case for a common hearing on the essential religious practices doctrine.

Explanation

The Supreme Court's timeline states that rejoinder submissions will be heard on April 21, followed by the concluding submissions from the amicus curiae on April 22, 2026. This precise date is a key factual detail for prelims-style questions.

Explanation

The core issue before the 9-judge Bench is to re-examine the 'Essential Religious Practices' doctrine, first laid down in the 1954 Shirur Mutt case. This doctrine determines which practices of a religion are integral to it and thus receive protection under Article 25 of the Constitution. The other doctrines are related to different constitutional principles.

Explanation

Bharat-VISTAAR is an agricultural extension tool providing information on crop practices, central schemes like PM-KISAN, and pest management. The launch was led by the Union Agriculture Minister, confirming the nodal ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is also correct as the tool integrates AgriStack and ICAR data. Statement 3 is incorrect because Bharat-VISTAAR is explicitly designed to be accessible via a simple phone call (dialling 155261) in addition to mobile access.

Explanation

The Finance Minister allocated Rs 150 crore for Bharat-VISTAAR for the next financial year (2026-27). This is a specific data point crucial for prelims-style factual questions.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated in the Budget speech and article, is to provide information on crop planning, weather, markets, and schemes in the farmer's language, enabling better decisions. It is an advisory and information tool, not a replacement for officers or a platform solely for businesses or land disputes.

Explanation

Article 30, which grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions, is enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, which deals with Fundamental Rights. This is a foundational fact for polity.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The court explicitly barred the government from dictating the recruitment procedure, limiting its role to prescribing minimum qualifications. Statement 2 is incorrect: The court said minority institutions can prescribe higher qualifications. Statement 3 is correct: The case was about appointing a PGT (Biology).

Explanation

The article states that Justice Arijit Banerjee made the observations on February 10. The publication date is February 16, 2026, confirming the year. This tests precise date recall, a common Prelims trap.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is the protection granted by Article 30 of the Constitution, which gives minorities the right to administer their educational institutions. The court ruled that dictating recruitment procedures infringes upon this fundamental right. While Article 226 was the procedural route, the substantive right is under Article 30.

Explanation

The NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The other Acts are important environmental laws, but the NGT derives its specific statutory authority from its own dedicated Act of 2010.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the environmental clearance was granted by the MoEFCC in November 2022, not by the NGT in 2023. The NGT only reviewed and upheld this clearance. Statement 3 is correct as the NGT explicitly noted the project's strategic importance.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the project cost is 'over Rs 80,000-crore'. This is a direct factual recall question. The other figures are plausible distractors given the scale of similar projects.

Explanation

The core tension in this case is between adhering to stringent environmental norms (conservation) and pursuing infrastructure deemed critical for national security and strategic positioning in the Indo-Pacific. The NGT's ruling leaned on the latter while asserting the former was addressed via safeguards.

Explanation

In the landmark Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India case (2017), the Supreme Court held that the Right to Privacy is an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The CJI-led bench refused to stay the implementation of Section 44(3). Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct; petitioners contend the amendment grants unguided discretion to deny information, bypassing the PIO's balancing act.

Explanation

The article mentions that a five-judge Constitution Bench in its November 2019 judgment in 'Central Public Information Officer versus Supreme Court of India' examined Section 8(1)(j) to apply the proportionality test. Puttaswamy (2017) recognized privacy but did not deal with the RTI balance specifically.

Explanation

The petitioners argue that the provision accords the government 'unguided discretion to deny personal information' and that 'the fundamental right to privacy has been extended to the state.' Privacy is a right available to individuals/citizens against the state, not to the state itself.

Explanation

The New Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (New START) was exclusively a bilateral treaty between the United States of America and the Russian Federation, aimed at limiting their strategic offensive arms. Other nuclear powers were not party to this agreement.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: New START capped deployed strategic nuclear warheads at 1,550. Statement 2 is incorrect: While inspections were suspended, it happened in 2023, not 2020, amid tensions over the Ukraine war. Statement 3 is correct: With New START's expiry, no active bilateral nuclear arms control treaty remains between the US and Russia.

Explanation

A core provision of the New START Treaty was limiting each party (US and Russia) to a maximum of 1,550 deployed strategic nuclear warheads. The other numbers are distractors: 2,200 was the limit under the original START I treaty, while 1,000 and 2,500 are not associated with major US-Russia arms control limits.

Explanation

The most direct and critical impact is the loss of the treaty's verification regime (inspections, data exchanges) and the numerical caps on warheads. This creates a 'transparency vacuum,' reduces predictability, and heightens the risk of misperception and arms racing, which is the central concern for global strategic stability.

Explanation

Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission every five years. Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the 16th FC mandates spending 50% of the basic component towards 'Sanitation and Solid Waste Management' and/or 'Water Management'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the recommended structure is 80% basic grant and 20% performance grant, not 60-40. Statement 3 is correct as the commission recommended a one-time urbanization incentive grant for merging peri-urban villages.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Unlike the 15th FC, the 16th FC has recommended 80 per cent grant as a basic grant and 20 per cent as a performance grant." This is a key factual change from the previous commission's approach.

Explanation

The article highlights that continuing SLBs and using online portals for reporting will "make it possible to link outlays to outcomes." This is the core objective: moving from input-based funding to performance and outcome-based funding to improve urban service delivery like water and sanitation.

Explanation

Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) and Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreements (CEPAs) related to trade and commerce are negotiated and implemented under the Department of Commerce, which falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The original target was 2030, but it was achieved in 2025 (5 years early). Statement 2 is incorrect: Non-oil trade grew by nearly 20% last year to reach $65 billion. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

After achieving the initial $100 billion target five years early, the leaders set a new target of $200 billion in bilateral trade to be achieved by 2032.

Explanation

The article states that 'Bharat Mart' will serve as a wholesale hub for Indian goods targeting Africa, West Asia and Eurasia, aiming to help double India's exports to these regions. This reflects the corridor's evolution into a platform for third-market access.

Explanation

Article 142 of the Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. This inherent power is often invoked to issue guidelines or directions, as seen in this bail disclosure case.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The SC 'annulled' the bail order as it was flawed from inception due to suppression of facts, not 'cancelled' it for post-release misconduct. Statement 2 is correct as the Court laid down mandatory disclosure guidelines. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, where the accused suppressed 9 FIRs.

Explanation

The Supreme Court noted that the record showed as many as nine FIRs had been registered against the accused over the years, which he suppressed in his bail application before the High Court.

Explanation

The core of the judgment is that a litigant must approach the court with 'clean hands' and disclose all material facts. Suppression amounts to an abuse of the judicial process. The other principles, while important, are not the central focus of this specific ruling on bail disclosure.

Explanation

The Department of Fertilizers (DoF) under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers administers the fertiliser subsidy regime and prepares the state-wise, season-wise supply plan for subsidised fertilisers. The Department of Agriculture assesses requirements, but the DoF handles the subsidy and distribution logistics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect. While DAP is technically decontrolled, the Centre's subsidy is conditional upon companies charging a fixed MRP (₹1,350/bag), making it practically controlled. Statement 3 is correct; the DoF controls the movement and allocation via an 'agreed supply plan'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Centre pays a flat subsidy of ₹1,490 per 50-kg bag of DAP. The MRP of DAP is ₹1,350, but this is a separate figure. The subsidy amount is a key data point for prelims.

Explanation

The article mentions that the UP government's move follows allegations of companies resorting to 'tagging' – forcing farmers to buy non-subsidised fertilisers along with subsidised ones. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is responsible for the compilation and release of the Consumer Price Index (CPI) data. The RBI uses this data for its monetary policy framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The new CPI 2024 series adopts the UN's COICOP 2018 classification. Statement 2 is correct: Rural house rent is included for the first time. Statement 3 is incorrect: The new basket contains 358 items, which is an increase from 299 items in the previous (2012 base) series.

Explanation

The CCEA has approved the construction of the 33.7-km long project, which includes a 15.8-km twin tube tunnel under the Brahmaputra, at an estimated cost of Rs 18,662 crore. It will connect Gohpur and Numaligarh in Assam.

Explanation

CTF 154 is dedicated to enhancing maritime security through multinational training programs across the Middle East. India's command, led by Commodore Milind Mokashi, projects its commitment to the rules-based order at sea and capacity-building in a critical region, aligning with its SAGAR doctrine.

Explanation

FSSAI is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoHFW). It is responsible for setting standards for food and regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The IIM-Ahmedabad study recommended a Health Star Rating, not a warning label system. Statement 2 is correct: The food industry supported a 'facts-upfront' label showing sugar, salt, fat content. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Economic Survey for two consecutive years pushed for warning labels, not a star rating system.

Explanation

The article states that over 14,000 comments were received on the 2022 draft, with the highest number—8,212 representations—coming from food business operators. This highlights the significant engagement from the industry on this regulatory issue.

Explanation

The core objective of FOPL is public health and consumer protection. By providing simplified, interpretative nutritional information on the front of packs, it aims to steer consumers away from products high in salt, sugar, and fats, thereby helping combat diet-related non-communicable diseases like obesity and diabetes.

Explanation

The 2009 Endangerment Finding was issued by the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) under the authority of the Clean Air Act. This finding declared six greenhouse gases a threat to public health, providing the legal basis for regulating emissions from vehicles and power plants.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the EPA repealed the 2009 Endangerment Finding. Statement 2 is incorrect: The finding authorized regulation of emissions from both motor vehicles and stationary sources like power plants. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the repeal was touted for $1.3 trillion in 'savings'. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Methane traps 80 times CO2’s heat in the short term'. This is a key data point regarding the global warming potential (GWP) of different greenhouse gases, a common topic in environment-related questions.

Explanation

The 2009 Endangerment Finding did not create new legislation but used the existing Clean Air Act to declare GHGs a threat to public health. This finding was the crucial legal step that authorized the EPA to set emission standards for vehicles and later for power plants, without needing new laws from Congress.

Explanation

The definition of 'industry' is provided in Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947. This is a fundamental definition in Indian labour law that determines the scope and application of the Act.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The landmark case is Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa. Statement 2 is incorrect: It was decided by a seven-judge bench in 1978, not a nine-judge bench. The current 9-judge bench is revisiting it. Statement 3 is correct: The 1978 judgment did introduce a 'triple test' to expansively define 'industry' under the Industrial Disputes Act.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court has fixed the hearing for the case on two days: March 17 and March 18, 2026. The other dates are distractors.

Explanation

The 1978 judgment, known for its pro-labour stance, expanded the definition of 'industry' under Section 2(j) beyond profit-making entities. It introduced a 'triple test' to include systematic activities like hospitals and educational institutions, thereby extending the status and legal protections of 'workmen' to their employees.

Explanation

The case primarily involves Articles 25 and 26, which are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution dealing with Fundamental Rights. Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, while Part V deals with the structure of the Supreme Court, not the rights themselves.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the text of Article 25. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 26. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 2018 Supreme Court verdict actually struck down the ban and allowed women of all ages to enter the temple. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court hearing on review petitions is scheduled for April 2026. This is a specific date fact that can be asked directly in preliminary exams.

Explanation

The core issue, as stated by the Law Minister, is striking a balance between essential religious practices (protected under Articles 25 & 26) and elemental constitutional questions, primarily the right to equality (Article 14) and non-discrimination on the basis of sex. This is the classic dilemma of individual rights versus group rights in a secular democracy.

Explanation

The Knesset is the unicameral national legislature (parliament) of the State of Israel. It is situated in Jerusalem and consists of 120 members.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because PM Modi's first visit to Israel was in July 2017. The upcoming 2026 visit is his second. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the BIT was signed in 2025. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions the defence agreement signed in November 2025.

Explanation

The article clearly states: "In November, India and Israel inked a landmark agreement to enhance defence, industrial, and technological cooperation..." This is a direct factual recall from the text.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the defence agreement is aimed at "sharing of advanced technology to promote co-development and co-production." This aligns with India's goal of moving from a buyer to a co-developer in defence partnerships, supporting the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for formulating India's foreign trade policy and conducting bilateral and multilateral trade negotiations. The Commerce Secretary, as mentioned in the article, leads this effort.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Commerce Secretary clearly stated that India's tariff reductions and market access will be extended only after the legal agreement is signed. Statement 3 is incorrect; the delegation is led by Joint Secretary Darpan Jain, not the Commerce Secretary.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the US has announced it will reduce reciprocal tariffs on Indian goods from 25% to 18%. This is a key data point of the interim agreement.

Explanation

Interim pacts are used to address immediate, resolvable issues (like the 25% tariffs) and build political and economic trust. This paves the way for more complex negotiations on a comprehensive agreement, which covers sensitive areas like agriculture, services, and intellectual property.

Explanation

The Oslo II Accord divided the West Bank into Areas A, B, and C. Area A is under Palestinian civil and security control. Area B is under Palestinian civil control and Israeli security control. Area C, constituting about 60% of the West Bank, is under full Israeli civil and security control.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the registration process will take place only in Area C, not all areas. Statement 3 is incorrect as Egypt, Qatar, and Jordan condemned the move, calling it illegal and a dangerous escalation.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Area C constitutes some 60% of West Bank territory. This is a key factual division established by the Oslo Accords and is a crucial data point for understanding the territorial control in the region.

Explanation

Critics, including the Palestinian Authority, the NGO Peace Now, and Arab nations, view this administrative measure as a 'mega land grab' and a dangerous escalation aimed at consolidating Israeli control, effectively accelerating the de facto annexation process and undermining the foundations of a future Palestinian state.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is the designated law enforcement agency responsible for investigating economic crimes and violations of foreign exchange laws, including offences under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002. The CBI investigates general crimes, the NIA investigates terror-related offences, and the SFIO investigates corporate fraud.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The ED's jurisdiction under PMLA is conditional upon the property being 'proceeds of crime' derived from a predicate 'Scheduled Offence'. Statement 2 is incorrect: A Provisional Attachment Order is valid for a maximum of 180 days unless confirmed. Statement 3 is incorrect: The appellate route is from Adjudicating Authority to the Appellate Tribunal (PMAT) and then to the High Court (not directly to the Supreme Court).

Explanation

The article states that the ED issued a Provisional Attachment Order in September 2015, freezing movable and immovable assets worth about ₹20 crore as suspected proceeds of crime. ₹2,400 crore was the alleged total betting amount, ₹60 crore was allegedly paid to the petitioner, and ₹110 was a commission rate per US dollar.

Explanation

The core issue is the interpretation of 'proceeds of crime' under PMLA. The SC is examining if income from an activity not listed in the PMLA Schedule (like cricket betting) can be treated as criminal proceeds solely because it is connected to a separate scheduled offence (like forgery). This tests the limits of the ED's attachment powers under Section 5.

Explanation

The Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) is a senior official in the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance. The CEA is primarily responsible for preparing the Economic Survey of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CEA's concern was the opposite—that only a 'small proportion' of India's workforce has formal skill training, which is a structural vulnerability. Statement 3 is a direct quote from his warning. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CEA Nageswaran referred to the Economic Survey 2023-24, which said India needs to create at least 8 million jobs every year. This is a key data point for understanding the scale of the employment challenge.

Explanation

The core argument is that AI, while a productivity booster, poses a unique challenge for India due to its massive need for job creation and low formal skilling. Unmanaged, it could displace workers faster than they can be reskilled, leading to social and economic instability and widening inequality.

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is the statutory body established under the NGT Act, 2010 to handle environmental disputes. The article mentions a six-member special bench of the NGT disposing of challenges to the Great Nicobar project.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per FSI data in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Indian Forest Act, 1927 deleted references to community rights present in the 1878 Act, thereby weakening them. Statement 3 is correct as Lantana is reported to cover >40% of tiger reserves.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'more than 99,000 hectares of forest land have been diverted for non-forestry purposes' in the last five years. The other figures are close distractors.

Explanation

Experts pointed out the issue of 'ecological compensation deficit'. The dry, deciduous Aravalli forests have different biodiversity, carbon sequestration potential, and ecological functions compared to the dense, evergreen tropical rainforests of Great Nicobar, making them an imperfect substitute.

Explanation

As per the news, the Department of Pharmaceuticals informed the Rajya Sabha that the MoHFW has constituted the committee. While the Department of Pharmaceuticals is under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, the committee itself was formed by the MoHFW, which is the nodal ministry for health regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The summit is coming to the Global South for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the theme is 'People, Planet, Progress', it focuses on practical, on-ground AI solutions, not catastrophic risks (which were the focus of earlier summits like Bletchley). Statement 3 is correct: PM Modi will inaugurate the summit on February 19.

Explanation

The article states that a woman in a permanent government post has access to long-term childcare leave of up to 730 days (approximately two years), with full pay for the first year and partial pay thereafter. This is a specific benefit for government employees beyond the standard 26 weeks of maternity leave.

Explanation

The core argument, as per the article, is that refurbished devices (like MRI machines costing Rs 1-3.5 crore vs. Rs 4-8 crore new) reduce upfront costs. This makes advanced diagnostics financially viable for hospitals in smaller cities and standalone facilities, thereby improving healthcare access and decentralization. The other options are extreme misrepresentations of the debate.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for policies related to electronics, IT, and emerging technologies like AI. It oversees initiatives like the National AI Strategy and semiconductor manufacturing schemes (PLI for IT Hardware, SPECS).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because India aims to reduce dependence on chip/GPU imports for strategic sectors, not just smartphones. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India trails the US and China in developing native foundational AI models and lacks large homegrown AI infrastructure companies.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India is hosting the world's largest AI Impact Summit in New Delhi in 2026. The UK and South Korea have hosted similar government-backed events, but the 2026 summit in India is described as the largest.

Explanation

The core objective is to position India as a major destination in the global AI race, attract global tech investment (especially in data centres and semiconductors), and leverage its user base and talent. This aligns with the government's broader 'Digital India' and 'Make in India' initiatives for technological self-reliance.

Explanation

The PESA Act, 1996, extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution, which deals with Panchayats, to the Scheduled Areas. This empowers Gram Sabhas in these areas with significant self-governance rights over resources.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. In Rev Stanislaus, the SC held that the right to 'propagate' does NOT include a right to convert. Statement 2 is correct, as the Court upheld anti-conversion laws as valid restrictions. Statement 3 is incorrect because Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion to 'all persons', not just citizens.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Chhattisgarh High Court delivered its judgment on October 28, 2025. August 14, 2025, is the date of a circular mentioned, and February 16, 2026, is the date of the Supreme Court order.

Explanation

The Solicitor General referred to the 1977 Rev Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh case, where a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court interpreted that the freedom to 'propagate' religion in Article 25 does not include a right to convert another person through the mentioned means. This is the core legal doctrine in the debate.

Explanation

The IndiaAI Mission is a flagship initiative to build a comprehensive AI ecosystem in India and falls under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which is responsible for IT policy, strategy, and promotion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The AI Impact Summit 2026 is the fourth edition; the first was held in the UK in 2023. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct as the summit has seven working groups called 'chakras' covering the mentioned topics.

Explanation

The IndiaAI Mission initially targeted 10,000 GPUs but has now achieved 38,000 GPUs, providing affordable access to world-class AI computing resources as part of its compute capacity expansion.

Explanation

BharatGen is a pioneering generative AI effort that aims to transform public service delivery by establishing basic models in language, speech, and computer vision as a public utility. It focuses on India's diversity and connects with the Atmanirbhar Bharat goal.

Explanation

The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) is one of the three existing All-India Services (along with IPS and IFoS). The article proposes the ISS as a new, complementary all-India scientific cadre to work alongside these generalist administrative services.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which states CSIR and ICAR have separate recruitment rules but are bound by the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964. Statement 2 is correct, as the US model is cited. Statement 3 is incorrect; the ISS is proposed to complement, not replace, existing services like the IAS.

Explanation

The article explicitly lists France, Germany, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States as countries with dedicated scientific cadres. Canada is not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

The core argument is about governance structure. The article asserts that current generalist administrative rules limit scientists' professional role. The ISS, with tailored rules, would allow scientists to provide and document evidence-based advice more effectively, thereby strengthening evidence-based policymaking.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal agency for policy matters relating to information technology, electronics, and the Internet. It oversees the National AI Strategy and various AI initiatives in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the AI4D program funding is over £100 million, not £200 million. Statement 3 is correct as the African Language Hub for 40 languages is a highlighted part of the AI4D program.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the AI4D program is part of the 'more than 100 million pounds' commitment from the UK. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated, is to make AI technology more inclusive and accessible for millions by enabling it to work in 40 African languages, thereby addressing the linguistic digital divide.

Explanation

The UNESCO Recommendation on the Ethics of AI is the first global standard-setting instrument on this topic, adopted by all member states in 2021. It provides values, principles, and policy actions, as referenced in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: South Korea wants to retain memory chip dominance. Statement 2 is incorrect: Singapore aims to be a 'pace-setter' for AI governance, but the goal of leading global governance 'respecting state sovereignty' is attributed to China. Statement 3 is correct: India's focus is on upskilling and its digital market.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that South Korea's AI Basic Act came into force on January 22, 2026. India's AI Governance Guidelines were announced in November 2025, and the article's publication date is February 16, 2026.

Explanation

The article states that at the core of a trusted AI ecosystem are 'trusted datasets — a real-time, high-quality, and representative data infrastructure... increasingly anchored in Digital Public Infrastructure.' The other options are supporting layers or potential outcomes, not the foundational core.

Explanation

Article 112 of the Indian Constitution mandates the presentation of the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) to Parliament. By convention, it is presented by the Finance Minister of India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the increase is 15%, not 20%. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the defence allocation is Rs 7.85 lakh crore, which is 15% higher than the previous budget. The other figures are plausible distractors.

Explanation

The article directly quotes PM Modi stating that data centres will be a "massive job-creator for the Indian youth." While other options might be secondary effects, job creation is highlighted as the primary domestic benefit.

Explanation

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the statutory authority for approving activities involving large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production, including the environmental release of GM crops.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: India agreed to show 'intent' or 'commitment', not a legally binding commitment. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article clarifies direct import of living GM organisms is not allowed. Statement 3 is correct: The article states US tariffs on Indian goods are slashed to 18%, which is almost half of what is imposed on China.

Explanation

The article provides the data: India's agri-exports to the US were $5.7 billion and imports were $2.1 billion in 2024, resulting in an agri-trade surplus of $3.6 billion. $38 billion is the overall goods trade surplus, not specific to agriculture.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that the deal opens doors 'with caution, and with quota systems.' It specifies that India has largely opened crops not widely grown domestically (like tree nuts) and that lowered duties will be accompanied by import quotas. This is the core protective mechanism discussed.

Explanation

Bhashini is India's National Language Translation Mission, an AI-led initiative developed under the Digital India Bhashini division of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Its goal is to break language barriers using technology.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states it is the first such conclave in the Global South, not the first globally. Statement 2 is correct as the article emphasizes correcting the imbalance in representation. Statement 3 is correct as per the data point mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Close to 90 per cent of AI patents today originate in the US, Europe and China." This is a crucial data point highlighting the current concentration of AI innovation.

Explanation

The article positions India's DPI, which underpins welfare services, as a model for building inclusive AI. Instead of focusing only on proprietary frontier models, the argument is to build AI layers atop existing DPI systems to optimize services like welfare delivery, making them more accessible and affordable.

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the nodal ministry for India's AI strategy and initiatives, including the IndiaAI Mission. The Secretary of MeitY, S Krishnan, is quoted in the article, and MeitY oversees such technology summits.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the summit is 'Coming to the Global South for the first time'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies India's pitch is 'different' and centers on 'People, Planet, and Progress' for real-world solutions, unlike previous summits that wrestled with catastrophic risks. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'proposals for AI Commons... and shared compute infrastructure' as deliverables.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the summit 'is expected to see participation from over 100 countries'. The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article's core theme is India's distinct pitch focusing on 'People, Planet, and Progress'—building real-world solutions and democratizing AI resources. It aims to become the 'leading voice on AI in the Global South' and move the discourse beyond the catastrophic risk narrative of earlier summits. The other options are either incorrect or not the primary focus.

Explanation

The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) is a unified regulator for financial products, services, and institutions in the International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in India. It was established under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019, and operates under the administrative control of the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the growth was over the past 7 years, not a decade. Statement 2 is correct: Joseph Joshy of IFSCA stated that DPDP Rules, 2025 could unlock strategic 'data corridors'. Statement 3 is incorrect: The hybrid architecture proposed involves running smaller models on devices and only heavier processing in the cloud to reduce latency, not running everything on the cloud.

Explanation

The article explicitly quotes Sunil Gupta stating that India accounts for roughly 20% of global data creation and consumption but processes only about 3% of it domestically. The 20% figure is the share of global data, not the processing share.

Explanation

The core argument, as highlighted by the Yotta CEO, is that India must move from being a data generator/consumer to a sovereign processor to define its own AI models and reduce dependency. Declaring it an 'essential commodity' is a policy lever to ensure focused investment and strategic importance, akin to energy or food security.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Survey was prepared by the State Planning Commission (SPC) with details from the Finance Department. The SPC is the apex planning body at the state level, analogous to NITI Aayog at the centre.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's core projection. Statement 2 is incorrect; the state's per capita income (₹3.62 lakh) is 1.77 times higher, not lower, than the national average (₹2.05 lakh). Statement 3 is correct, highlighting the state's disproportionate economic contribution.

Explanation

The article provides the precise figure: "Its Gross State Domestic Product at current prices reached ₹31.19 lakh crore in 2024-25." This is a key data point for factual recall in prelims.

Explanation

The article directly states that textile exports face headwinds due to a 50% US tariff hike, and that the Union government's suspension of the 11% customs duty on cotton until December 2025 offers partial relief. This tests understanding of cause-effect in trade policy.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the initiative will be "grounded in the government policy framework of the NEP 2020." NEP 2020 is the overarching policy guiding all recent education reforms in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Bodhan AI is a not-for-profit company, not a for-profit one, and it was launched in connection with the Education Ministry, not MeitY. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of its goal. Statement 3 is correct as it is hosted at the Centre of Excellence at IIT Madras.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Centre of Excellence at IIT Madras "was a Budget announcement last year, with an allocation of Rs 500 crore." This is a key factual data point for prelims.

Explanation

Prof. Kamakoti explicitly raised the concern: "We need to see that there is absolutely no data storage in a public forum. But it can be stored within a device that the student will use." This highlights the focus on data sovereignty and privacy.