18 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The 'Horizon 2047' is a long-term strategic roadmap for collaboration between India and France, unveiled in 2023, aiming to guide partnership till 2047 when India marks 100 years of independence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The DPDP Act, through Section 44(3), amends Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act, which petitioners argue weakens transparency by removing the 'public interest' override for disclosure. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article, which mentions concerns about journalists as data fiduciaries and the government-controlled selection committee for the Data Protection Board.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 6th India-France Annual Defence Dialogue witnessed a push for enhancing indigenous content 'up to 50 per cent' in the Rafale fighter aircraft to be manufactured in India. This is a key data point for 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' in defence.

Explanation

The core legal conflict is between the fundamental right to privacy (established under Article 21 by the Puttaswamy judgment) and the citizen's right to information, which is instrumental for transparency and accountability in a democracy. The petitioners argue the DPDP Act disproportionately restricts RTI in the name of privacy.

Explanation

The CBDT is a statutory authority under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, responsible for administering direct tax laws through the Income Tax Department. The data cited in the article is released by the Income-Tax Department, which functions under the CBDT.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; individual taxpayers grew at a CAGR of ~8%, while non-individuals grew at ~5% CAGR. Statement 3 is correct; the cost of collection fell to 0.41% (provisional) in FY 2024-25 from 1.36% in FY 2000-01.

Explanation

The article states that the expansion represents a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of approximately 7.89% over the 11-year period from AY 2013-14 to AY 2024-25. The other options are plausible distractors but are not the specific figure mentioned.

Explanation

A lower cost of collection percentage means the tax department spends less to collect every ₹100 of tax. This reflects improved efficiency through digitalisation (pre-filled returns, faceless assessment) and better processes, allowing the system to manage a larger taxpayer base sustainably without a proportional increase in administrative costs.

Explanation

The Prime Minister's Office (PMO) is a staff agency that provides secretarial assistance to the Prime Minister. It plays a crucial role in coordinating the activities of various Ministries and is headed by the Principal Secretary. It is not involved in monetary policy (RBI), adjudication (Judiciary), or elections (Election Commission).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect and a classic examiner trap. Spain decided to join the India-led 'Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)', not the Quad (which comprises India, US, Japan, Australia). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in PM Modi's post and the article. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

As per the article, India and Spain are marking 2026 as the 'India-Spain Year of Culture, Tourism and AI' to commemorate the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations between the two countries. This is a key factual detail for Prelims.

Explanation

The shift from buyer-seller to co-development and co-production is a cornerstone of India's 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' (self-reliant India) initiative in defence. It aims to build domestic capacity, gain access to advanced technology, reduce long-term dependence on imports, and integrate into global defence supply chains, thereby enhancing strategic autonomy.

Explanation

Article 32 grants the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. The petition was filed under Article 32, challenging the ban as a violation of fundamental rights like equality and freedom of religion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 2018 verdict was delivered by a five-judge constitution bench (4:1 majority), not a seven-judge bench. Statement 2 is correct: It struck down Rule 3(b) of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship Rules, 1965. Statement 3 is correct: As per the article, a nine-judge bench will hear the review petitions starting April 7, 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Supreme Court said the nine-judge Constitution Bench will start hearing the review petitions on April 7, 2026. February 16, 2026, is the date the announcement was made. September 28, 2018, is the date of the original verdict.

Explanation

The petition sought to declare the entry ban unconstitutional for violating Articles 14 (Equality), 15 (Prohibition of discrimination), and 25 (Freedom of religion). The defense relied on Articles 25 and 26 (Freedom to manage religious affairs). Thus, the core conflict is between religious freedom and gender equality.

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List, which divide legislative powers. 'Pilgrimage' and 'Public Order' are entries in the State List, placing them primarily under state legislature jurisdiction.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Section 4 of the Act. Statement 2 is correct as per Section 4(2). Statement 3 is incorrect; the only dispute explicitly excluded from the Act's purview is the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid dispute in Ayodhya, not the Gyanvapi dispute.

Explanation

Section 4 of the Places of Worship Act, 1991, mandates that the religious character of a place of worship shall be maintained as it existed on August 15, 1947, i.e., the day India attained independence.

Explanation

In the 2019 Ayodhya judgment, the Supreme Court upheld the Act, characterizing it as a legislative instrument that imposes a 'non-derogable obligation' on the State to enforce secularism and prevent retrogression into historical conflicts.

Explanation

While all options relate to health, the core theme of the news is indigenous development and manufacturing of affordable medical technology within India. This is the primary objective of the 'Make in India' initiative, which focuses on promoting domestic manufacturing and reducing import dependence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as MammoX is explicitly mentioned as an AI platform for mammography analysis from IIT Bombay. Statement 2 is incorrect; the breath analyzer detects chronic kidney disease, liver disease, and diabetes via VOCs like ammonia and acetone, not lung cancer. Statement 3 is correct as the article states Keratofy was developed with data collection and validation from LV Prasad Eye Institute.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the team collected around 50 patient samples and achieved an overall accuracy of approximately 88 per cent. The 96% figure is for Keratofy (eye disease), and the other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article repeatedly emphasizes affordability, non-invasiveness, and deployment potential in rural and resource-scarce settings. This addresses the core challenge of accessibility and early diagnosis in India's healthcare landscape. The tools are designed to assist, not replace, healthcare workers, and their utility in primary care settings is highlighted over exclusive use in urban hospitals.

Explanation

The interim order allowing the 5% Muslim quota in education was delivered by a Division Bench of the Bombay High Court comprising Chief Justice Mohit S Shah and Justice M S Sonak on November 14, 2014.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The quota was only for 50 specified backward Muslim communities, not for all Muslims. Statement 2 is correct: The court invoked 'extraordinary circumstances' to permit exceeding the 50% ceiling for educational institutions. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court stayed the application of the quota to public employment, citing the binding nature of the 50% ceiling from Indra Sawhney and Nagaraj cases.

Explanation

The Congress-NCP government's 2014 ordinance granted a 5% reservation to 50 specified Muslim sub-castes under a newly created 'Special Backward Category A'. This was distinct from the 16% Maratha quota.

Explanation

The court explicitly stated it was satisfied about the existence of 'extraordinary circumstances' justifying the breach of the 50% ceiling specifically for drawing Muslim youth into the 'mainstream of secular education'. While the Sachar Report provided data, the legal justification was the exceptional circumstance exception from the Indra Sawhney judgment.

Explanation

The NEP 2020 explicitly emphasizes the integration of technology, including AI, into the education system to develop future-ready skills. While Digital India is a broader program, NEP 2020 is the specific educational framework driving such institutional partnerships.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions enterprise-grade ChatGPT Edu access and structured onboarding. Statement 2 is incorrect because the partnership spans multiple disciplines including management (IIM-A), medicine (AIIMS), and creative fields (Pearl Academy), not just engineering. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly stated by the Director of AIIMS New Delhi.

Explanation

Raghav Gupta, Head of Education, OpenAI India, stated that studies project nearly 40% of core skills will change by 2030. This is a key data point highlighting the urgency behind such skilling initiatives.

Explanation

The core objective, as stated by OpenAI's Head of Education, is to bridge the gap between what AI tools can do and how people are using them by embedding these tools into the core infrastructure of universities. This aims to build AI-ready talent, not to develop hardware, replace teachers, or focus on exports.

Explanation

Foreign policy, international treaties, and strategic roadmaps like the Indo-Pacific Roadmap are formulated and handled by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). While defence and commerce ministries may be involved in specific aspects, the overarching framework is an MEA-led diplomatic initiative.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The India-France strategic partnership was signed in 1998. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions France continues to back India's UNSC aspiration. Statement 3 is incorrect: La Réunion is in the Indian Ocean, not the Atlantic Ocean, and is used for collaboration in the Indian Ocean region.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Six Scorpène-class submarines... are already in service.' This is a key factual detail from the defence procurement chapter of the relationship. The other numbers are distractors.

Explanation

The article identifies the shared commitment to 'strategic autonomy' (India) and 'puissance d'équilibre' (France), which translates to a preference for flexible partnerships over exclusive alliances, as the core logic that binds the relationship and allows it to transcend narrower political differences like those over Russia.

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in several judgments, has held that the right to life under Article 21 includes the right to live with human dignity, which extends to the right to a decent burial or cremation for the deceased and the right of the family to perform last rites.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court issued an interim stay specifically on the 'forcible exhumation' of bodies, not on all burials. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is also correct; the High Court's October 28, 2025, judgment granted liberty to approach the appropriate authority under the PESA Rules.

Explanation

The article clearly states that on January 27, 2025, the Supreme Court delivered a split verdict on a plea seeking permission to bury a deceased Christian pastor. The other dates are distractors: October 28, 2025, is the date of the High Court judgment, and February 18, 2026, is the date of the current interim stay order.

Explanation

The core issue revolves around whether the right to practice religion (including burial customs) under Article 25 is absolute or can be restricted by the state on grounds of public order, health, or morality. The split verdict and the current PIL directly engage with this constitutional balancing act, making it the primary significance.

Explanation

The district court recommended compensation as per the 'NALSA’s Compensation Scheme for women Victims/Survivors of Sexual Assault/other Crimes -2018'. NALSA is a statutory body constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free legal services and organize Lok Adalats.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: The death penalty was awarded for murder, but life imprisonment (meaning remainder of natural life) was also awarded separately for gang rape, among other offenses. Statement 3 is incorrect: The death sentence is 'subject to confirmation by the Hon’ble High Court of Karnataka under Section 407 of BNSS', meaning it is not immediately executable.

Explanation

The court specifically referred to news reports stating that only 3,818 foreign tourists visited Hampi in 2025, compared to nearly 20,000 in 2024. This data point was used to highlight the socio-economic impact of the crime.

Explanation

The court's detailed order stated that while mitigating factors (poverty, limited education) were considered, the 'aggravated factors overwhelmingly outweigh the mitigating factors'. The brutality, calculated nature of the crime ('controlled savagery'), and lack of remorse were central to applying the 'rarest of rare' doctrine, not the nationality of victims or public pressure.

Explanation

The Bharat-VISTAAR tool is an agricultural initiative launched by the Union Agriculture Minister and is designed to integrate various agricultural schemes and resources. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare is the nodal agency for all central schemes and policies related to agriculture, farmers, and allied sectors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as AgriStack was launched as part of the DPI Mission. Statement 2 is correct as the three foundational registries are the Farmer Registry, Crop Sown Registry, and Geo-referenced village maps. Statement 3 is correct as the Farmer Registry provides a digital identity (Farmer ID) linked to land records and crop details. Hence, all three statements are correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Digital Agriculture Mission was approved with a budget outlay of ₹2,817 crore for the creation of the Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI). The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the context of this mission.

Explanation

The core objective of Bharat-VISTAAR is to integrate information from various trusted sources (central/state schemes, weather, markets) and provide it to farmers in their language through a single platform, thereby simplifying access. It is an advisory and information tool, not a direct disbursement or price regulation mechanism.

Explanation

Article 243ZE of the Constitution provides for the constitution of Metropolitan Planning Committees to prepare draft development plans for metropolitan areas. This is a key provision under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act related to urban local governance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Kerala is the first state to ratify such a comprehensive policy. Statement 2 is correct: The policy calls for integrating hazard analysis and climate projections. Statement 3 is incorrect: The policy aims to reform and strengthen urban local bodies, not abolish them; it proposes reclassification and formation of metropolitan committees.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Kerala expects 80% of its population to be urban by 2050, which is a key driver for the need for a comprehensive urban policy. The other figures are plausible distractors for rapid urbanisation trends.

Explanation

The policy calls for a shift to an urban circular economy to move away from a linear waste model, aiming for carbon neutrality and generating new green jobs. The other options are either contrary to the policy's sustainability goals or not mentioned as primary objectives.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the event was organized by the US-India Strategic Partnership Forum (USISPF). This is a key bilateral business advocacy group, different from other industry bodies like USIBC, FICCI, or CII.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: Sarvam launched models with 30B and 105B parameters; the 17B parameter model was launched by Bharatgen. Statement 3 is incorrect: Strategic autonomy does not mean isolation but the capacity for independent choice, which can include selective collaboration while building domestic capacity.

Explanation

The article states that Sarvam launched a 105-billion-parameter model, which is the largest mentioned. Bharatgen's model has 17B parameters, and Sarvam's other model has 30B parameters. 200B is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article quotes the US advisor acknowledging that Indian companies will need local language support, local culture, and local inference for low latency. The launch of domestic models aligns with the goal of strategic autonomy—building capacity to serve local needs without being entirely dependent on a foreign stack, not complete isolation or immediate market dominance.

Explanation

The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), under the Ministry of Home Affairs, is the statutory body responsible for collecting and publishing national crime statistics, including data on crimes against women.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct; the Handbook explicitly warns against such terms. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article discusses resistance to its adoption (CJI's call for revision), indicating it is not yet mandatory training material.

Explanation

The article states that only around 14 per cent of high court judges are women. The figure of 35% corresponds to district courts, and 11 is the total number of women judges in the Supreme Court's history.

Explanation

The Handbook's core purpose is to sensitize judges and prevent the re-victimization of women by correcting the use of demeaning language and outdated stereotypes in court judgments and proceedings, thereby ensuring transformative justice.

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee for the Constituent Assembly. This committee and its sub-committees, like the Minorities Sub-Committee, were instrumental in framing provisions related to fundamental rights and minority safeguards.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Pillai advocated for a 10-year renewal system, not a permanent one. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Constituent Assembly rejected separate electorates in favor of reservation of seats within a joint electorate. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Minorities Sub-Committee issued its six-point questionnaire in March 1947. This was a key step in the participatory process of constitution-making, gathering inputs from individuals and institutions across the country.

Explanation

S. Oppiliappan's memorandum demanded freedom of worship and autonomy for his community. This articulation of a broad sense of religious freedom is reflected in the spirit and text of Article 25 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to freedom of religion.

Explanation

The ICRP is an independent international body that provides recommendations and guidance on all aspects of protection against ionizing radiation. Its recommendations form the scientific basis for radiation safety standards globally, including those of the IAEA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the U.S. DOE eliminated ALARA on January 12, 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect; the core of the LNT model is that there is NO safe threshold, and risk increases linearly with dose. Statement 3 is correct; the IAEA updates its Basic Safety Standards using inputs from the ICRP.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that on January 12, the U.S. Department of Energy (DOE) 'eliminated' ALARA from its directives and regulations. February 18, 2026, is the article's publication date. November 9, 2023, is the date of a cited Nature Medicine study.

Explanation

Critics in the article argue that the shift appears politically motivated, relies on non-peer-reviewed internal reports, and risks undermining worker protection, public trust, and regulatory coherence. The other options are contrary to the article's content.

Explanation

As per the article, Lt Gen Vipul Shinghal is the Deputy Chief of the Army Staff (Information Systems and Training). This role oversees the army's technological and training infrastructure, making him a key figure in formulating policy on AI integration.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the General explicitly called for treating AI as a weapon system and testing it accordingly. Statement 2 is incorrect; he expressed hope that international regulation, like other weapon conventions, 'will be achieved'. Statement 3 is correct as he cited India's ethos of 'shakti' going hand-in-hand with 'dharma' as a guiding principle.

Explanation

The article clearly states the address was given at the 'India AI Impact Summit 2026' in the capital. The other options are major events but are not mentioned in the context of this specific speech.

Explanation

The core ethical concern raised was that if a machine recommends a strike with 90% accuracy and it goes wrong, the commander might use the AI recommendation as a 'moral buffer'. This underscores the need for clear legal and ethical frameworks ensuring ultimate human responsibility and judgment.

Explanation

Section 123 is part of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951, which details various corrupt practices like bribery, undue influence, and false statements that can invalidate an election. The IPC and Constitution contain related provisions but not this specific section.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the false declaration was termed a 'corrupt practice' under Section 123(2), not 123(1) (which deals with bribery). Statement 3 is correct as the court noted non-disclosure of business entities and income sources. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states he owed over ₹1.3 crore in property tax arrears since 2018. The other options are close but incorrect distractors. Accurate recall of such monetary figures is often tested in prelims.

Explanation

Under the RPA, 1951, if a winning candidate is found guilty of a 'corrupt practice', it is a ground for declaring their election void (invalid). This is the direct legal consequence, as seen in this case. Other options, while possible in different contexts, are not the primary significance here.

Explanation

FSSAI is the statutory regulator for food safety and standards in India, established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. The Supreme Court's directive was specifically addressed to FSSAI to implement labelling regulations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Court directed FSSAI to 'consider' mandatory warning labels and file a response, not to implement the Indian Nutrition Rating model. Statement 2 is incorrect. The petitioner (NGO) opposed the Indian Nutrition Rating model, arguing it was not in line with global standards, which favor warning labels. Statement 3 is correct as per the article and the ICMR-INDIAB study.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the ICMR-INDIAB study found 101 million people in India, which is 11.4% of the population, have diabetes. This is a critical data point for understanding the scale of the NCD crisis driving the labelling debate.

Explanation

The core rationale, as stated by the petitioner and supported by the Court, is to enable informed consumer decisions to combat the rising epidemic of diet-related NCDs like diabetes and hypertension. This is a preventive public health strategy, not a revenue or trade objective.

Explanation

Article 356, which deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in states (President's Rule), is enshrined in Part XVIII of the Constitution, titled 'Emergency Provisions'. This part also contains Article 352 (National Emergency) and Article 360 (Financial Emergency).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions a Cabinet Sub-Committee with members including Pranab Mukherjee. Statement 2 is incorrect: Karnataka was not among the nine states listed (Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Punjab, Gujarat). Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly states the 1977 Janata Party precedent was cited.

Explanation

The article clearly states that President N. Sanjiva Reddi issued a proclamation dissolving the Assemblies in nine states: Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Orissa (Odisha), Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Punjab, and Gujarat.

Explanation

The core theme of the article is the political use of Article 356 (President's Rule) by successive central governments against opposition-ruled states. This act directly impacts federalism and Centre-State relations, making it a classic case study of constitutional provisions being leveraged for partisan advantage, a major topic in polity.

Explanation

Horizon 2047 is a bilateral roadmap between India and France, unveiled in 2023, outlining cooperation in defense, technology, space, and the Indo-Pacific until 2047, when India marks 100 years of independence.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rafale expansion is for the Indian Air Force and Navy, not the Army. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 'third way' is positioned as an alternative to US corporate and Chinese state-centric models, not Russian or Japanese models.

Explanation

Horizon 2047 is named for the target year 2047, which will mark 100 years of Indian independence. The roadmap was unveiled in 2023 and sets a long-term vision for bilateral collaboration.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that engaging with a strategically autonomous Europe, particularly France, allows India to diversify its engagements within the West, reducing overdependence and increasing its geopolitical 'maneuvering space' or 'spielraum'.

Explanation

The NGT is a specialized body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. The other acts are general environmental laws under which specific cases may be filed.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the NGT's ruling. Statement 2 is incorrect; the CBWTF is in Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, not Uttar Pradesh. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016 mandate treatment within 48 hours, not 72 hours.

Explanation

The article states that Madhya Pradesh has a treatment capacity of 62 metric tonnes per day, against a current generation of approximately 15.64 metric tonnes per day. This highlights a surplus in treatment capacity but gaps in the collection system.

Explanation

The NGT, following Supreme Court precedents, stated that the right to a wholesome environment is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21. A hygienic environment is essential for enjoying life with human dignity, making it a constitutional imperative for the state to protect the environment.

Explanation

Part XI of the Indian Constitution (Articles 245 to 263) deals specifically with the legislative and administrative relations between the Union and the States. This includes the distribution of legislative powers as per the Seventh Schedule. Part V deals with the Union executive and Parliament, Part VI with State governments, and Part XII with financial relations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The committee submitted its interim report (Part I) to the Tamil Nadu Chief Minister, not the President. Statement 2 is incorrect: The report's core argument is that a more federal Constitution will NOT weaken the Union. Statement 3 is correct: The committee was chaired by Justice Kurian Joseph, a retired Supreme Court judge.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the committee submitted the report to the Chief Minister on February 16, 2026. It was tabled in the Legislative Assembly on February 18, 2026. This is a classic data-centric trap where examiners test the precise date of submission versus the date of tabling.

Explanation

The article quotes the Tamil Nadu Chief Minister alleging that the BJP-led Union government was bringing subjects from the State List under the Concurrent List, thereby depriving States of their rights. While the other options (Finance Commission, Governor's role, GST) are related to federal issues, the specific constitutional concern highlighted in this report's context is the erosion of the State List.

Explanation

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing economic laws like the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The petition was filed by the Enforcement Directorate (ED), not the West Bengal government. Statement 2 is correct: The raids were part of an investigation into a ₹2,742-crore coal smuggling case. Statement 3 is correct: On January 15, the SC stayed the Kolkata Police probe against ED officials.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ED sought a CBI probe for obstruction of raids which were part of an investigation into a ₹2,742-crore coal smuggling case. The other figures are plausible distractors for a coal-related scam but are not mentioned.

Explanation

The case centers on the conflict between a central agency (ED) and a state government's police force, raising questions about the extent of central investigative powers in a state's domain. This directly tests the operational aspects of Indian federalism, unlike the other options which are not the primary issue here.

Explanation

The article states the taskforce was agreed upon under the India-U.K. Vision 2035 and the Fourth Energy Dialogue. Vision 2035 is a strategic roadmap to elevate bilateral ties across sectors, including climate and energy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Capacity is 272 GW (not just 'crossed 250 GW'), and solar is 141 GW, which is roughly half of 272 GW, not 'more than half'. Statement 2 is correct: VGF is ₹7,453 crore (~₹7,500 crore). Statement 3 is incorrect: Initial capacity is 10 GW (5 GW each), not 15 GW.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India's installed wind energy capacity is 55 GW. The other options are close distractors often seen in previous capacity reports.

Explanation

The Minister stated that the next phase of the energy transition must strengthen reliability, grid stability, industrial depth, and energy security, and offshore wind has a strategic role in this. The other options are either too narrow, incorrect, or not mentioned.

Explanation

The regulation of intermediaries like social media platforms and IT policy falls under the purview of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The IT Minister, Ashwini Vaishnaw, made the announcement, confirming MeitY's nodal role.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The mandated compliance window is 3 hours, not 24 hours. Statement 2 is correct as per the Adani Group's announcement. Statement 3 is correct as India leapt to 3rd place, overtaking South Korea and Japan in the Stanford University ranking.

Explanation

IT Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw stated that India expects more than $200 billion in AI investments over the next two years. The $100 billion option is a distractor representing Adani's specific plan, while $150 billion is the additional catalytic spending mentioned alongside it.

Explanation

The minister explicitly stated the need for protecting children and society from harms, linking it to discussions on both age restrictions and stronger deepfake regulations. The other options are not supported as primary objectives by the article's content.

Explanation

Sanae Takaichi is a member of the Liberal Democratic Party (LDP), Japan's dominant conservative party which has held power for most of the post-war era. The LDP won a two-thirds majority in the snap election mentioned in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: she became the first woman premier in October. Statement 2 is incorrect; the framework is 'Free and Open Indo-Pacific' (FOIP), not 'Closed'. Statement 3 is directly mentioned as a campaign pledge to suspend the tax for two years. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Japan's lower house formally reappointed Sanae Takaichi as Prime Minister on Wednesday, February 18, 2026. February 8 was the election date, February 14 was when China's diplomat spoke, and February 20 is the expected date for her policy speech.

Explanation

The article quotes the Chief Government Spokesman stating the international situation has become 'significantly more severe', and in practice, updating FOIP will likely mean strengthening supply chains and promoting free trade through agreements like the CPTPP. The other options are either not mentioned or are extreme misrepresentations of Japan's stated policy.

Explanation

The Supreme Court order specifically directs Justice Aniruddha Bose, the Director of the National Judicial Academy (NJA) in Bhopal, to constitute the committee. The NJA is the premier institution for judicial training in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The SC took suo motu cognisance of a May 2025 Allahabad HC order. Statement 2 is incorrect: The SC actually criticized the 2023 Handbook as being too 'Harvard-oriented' and technical. Statement 3 is correct: The order explicitly asks the committee to identify and compile offensive words/expressions from different languages.

Explanation

The Supreme Court order, dated February 10, 2026, urges the panel to 'complete its deliberations and submit a report, preferably within three months.' This is a specific timeline mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The SC explicitly states that 'some action is required... to inculcate and nurture an inherent sensitivity' and that 'efforts thus far have not borne the fruit that was expected.' The other options are not the core objectives; the aim is behavioral and procedural reform within the existing legal framework.

Explanation

The MTP Act, 1971, is the principal legislation regulating the termination of pregnancies in India. It specifies the conditions, gestational limits, and the role of medical practitioners. The POCSO Act deals with sexual offences against children, the JJ Act deals with child protection, and the PC-PNDT Act regulates sex-selective diagnostics.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the MTP Act does not permit termination 'unconditionally'; it has specific conditions and categories (like rape survivors, minors) for extending the limit to 24 weeks. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the medical board's role was to provide medical facts, not a recommendation, and the court made the decision based on reproductive autonomy.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Bombay High Court permitted termination of a 31-week pregnancy. The standard limit under the MTP Act is 24 weeks, with exceptions. The Supreme Court case cited involved a 30-week pregnancy, making 31 weeks the specific factual point from this news.

Explanation

The court cited a recent Supreme Court order based on 'reproductive autonomy' to justify its decision. Reproductive autonomy, derived from the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21, allows a woman to make decisions about her own body, including pregnancy. The other options are unrelated legal doctrines.

Explanation

Expert Appraisal Committees (EACs) are constituted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) under the provisions of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006. They provide technical recommendations for granting Environmental Clearance.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: EC was granted in Feb 2010 with original 10-year validity. Statement 2 is incorrect: The NGT in 2017 set aside the project's Wildlife Clearance and suspended the Forest Clearance; it did not set aside the Environmental Clearance. Statement 3 is correct: The developer is Greenko Demwe Power Limited (GDPL) after a transfer from Athena Demwe Power Ltd.

Explanation

The Expert Appraisal Committee (EAC) has extended the validity of the Environmental Clearance for the Demwe Lower Project by 11 years, taking its new expiry date to 2037. The 13-year option is a distractor referring to the general validity for hydel projects under a 2022 notification.

Explanation

The extension was primarily based on a 2025 Office Memorandum (OM) from the MoEFCC that rationalizes time lost in litigation before the NCLT or courts as 'zero period', meaning it is not counted against the validity period of the clearance. This was argued by the developer for delays in NCLT and NGT.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority established under Article 324. It is responsible for administering election processes to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President, including Rajya Sabha biennial elections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 83(1). Statement 2 is incorrect; vacancies due to resignation, death, or disqualification are filled through bye-elections, not biennial elections. Statement 3 is incorrect; Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs).

Explanation

The Election Commission notification specifically mentions elections to 37 Rajya Sabha seats whose terms are set to expire in April. The other numbers are plausible distractors based on previous election cycles or the total number of seats retiring in a different year.

Explanation

Article 83(1) designates the Rajya Sabha as a permanent House not subject to dissolution. The staggered retirement of one-third of members every two years ensures institutional memory, legislative continuity, and a balance of experienced and new members, which is a key feature of a bicameral legislature.

Explanation

'Police' and 'Public Order' are entries in the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution. This gives state governments primary authority over police administration, which is a key reason why nationwide police reform is challenging.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Supreme Court mandated a minimum two-year tenure for the DGP. Statement 2 is correct as the separation of investigation from law and order is one of the seven key directives. Statement 3 is incorrect because the NCRB is a data collection agency under the MHA, not an implementation body for police reforms; implementation is the responsibility of state governments.

Explanation

The article specifically states the conviction rate for murder was 37.7% in 2023. The rate for rape was lower at 22.7%, which is a distractor in the options. This data point highlights the challenges in the criminal justice system.

Explanation

The article argues that politicians are unwilling to accept independent-minded police leadership as it reduces their power to use transfers and postings as rewards or punishments. This control is seen as a key source of political patronage, making them reluctant to implement reforms that would insulate the police.

Explanation

COBRA (Commando Battalion for Resolute Action) is a specialized unit of the CRPF, trained in guerrilla warfare and jungle tactics, making it the primary central force for anti-Naxal operations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Venugopal Rao's public critique highlighted ideological betrayal. Statement 2 is incorrect; Salwa Judum was a controversial vigilante movement criticized for human rights abuses and is seen as a failure. Statement 3 is correct, as the article highlights holding territory and delivering public goods as a key tactical shift.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'More than 1,500 cadres surrendered in two years across Bastar, Gadchiroli, Malkangiri and Khammam.' This is a key data point indicating the scale of the movement's decline.

Explanation

The article's core argument is that the 'final mile' is not military but depends on rehabilitation. It warns against past mistakes and emphasizes livelihood, land rights, and governance to prevent a relapse into conflict, making rehabilitation the key to sustainable peace.

Explanation

The European Scientific Advisory Board on Climate Change (ESABCC) is the independent scientific advisory body of the European Union, established to provide scientific advice and expertise on climate targets and policy. It operates within the EU's institutional framework.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the 1.5°C goal (not 2.0°C) is increasingly out of reach. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions most studies identify Europe as the fastest-warming continent.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the ESABCC's advice is to prepare for a temperature rise of about 2.8 degrees Celsius by 2100. The 1.5°C and 2.0°C figures are Paris Agreement targets, while 3.5°C is a distractor not mentioned.

Explanation

The article concludes that while Europe's legacy infrastructure was built for a stable climate, India's infrastructure development is still ongoing. This presents an opportunity to incorporate climate resilience from the outset, which is a strategic advantage in long-term adaptation.

Explanation

The MPCB is the state-level statutory body constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. The CPCB operates at the national level, the NGT is a specialized tribunal, and the MoEFCC is the central ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The PIL was initiated suo motu on October 31, 2023. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions the court mandated conversion of bakeries to green fuels. Statement 3 is incorrect: The court termed the compliance 'unsatisfactory' and criticized the 'lackadaisical approach'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that ₹360 crore was sanctioned for Financial Year 2024-25 for deep clean drives. The court observed that 'nothing worthwhile has been reported' despite this allocation.

Explanation

The article states that after two years of 'unsatisfactory compliance', the formation of the committee marks the court's strongest step, shifting from issuing directions to institutional oversight. This reflects judicial frustration with executive inaction and an attempt to ensure sustained enforcement.

Explanation

The article's byline explicitly states 'The writer works at the Research and Advocacy Division, Digital Empowerment Foundation.' This is a non-governmental organization focused on digital inclusion and rights.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article details how AI picks up caste correlations from text. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article cites a 2025 PNAS paper stating that models can pass bias tests yet retain hidden stereotypes, similar to human implicit bias. Statement 3 is correct; IndiCASA is highlighted as an India-context benchmark for stereotypes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: '...as demonstrated by Aylin Caliskan and her colleagues in 2017.' Tolga Bolukbasi's work was about a decade ago on how bias manifests geometrically. Prashanth Vijayaraghavan led the 2025 DECASTE study. Khyati Khandelwal worked on Indian-BhED in 2016.

Explanation

The core argument is that without proper audits like IndiCASA, AI systems used in hiring, credit, and governance will automate and hardwire existing caste and social hierarchies, making discrimination systemic and harder to challenge. The other options are secondary or not the primary risk discussed.

Explanation

The BBIN (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal) Initiative is a sub-regional agreement aimed at facilitating seamless cross-border movement of passenger and cargo vehicles. SAARC has a similar proposed agreement but it is not operational. BIMSTEC focuses on broader technical cooperation, and ASEAN-India involves Southeast Asia.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Bangladesh is indeed India's largest trading partner in South Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Teesta water-sharing agreement remains a pending and contentious bilateral issue, stalled due to objections from the West Bengal government. Statement 3 is correct: BIMSTEC's 7 members include 5 from South Asia (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka) and 2 from Southeast Asia (Myanmar, Thailand).

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Over the last 15 years, bilateral relations have deepened tremendously...'. This period corresponds to the Awami League's tenure in power, highlighting the duration of a specific phase in bilateral ties.

Explanation

The article highlights that connectivity projects linking eastern India to Bangladesh are 'put on hold for now' and that Bangladesh's trajectory toward sub-regional frameworks like BIMSTEC and BBIN will impact regionalism. A shift in policy could slow these projects, affecting India's strategic connectivity goals. Other options are exaggerated or not mentioned.

Explanation

The article discusses the post-1945 international order established with the founding of the United Nations in San Francisco. The UN Charter forms the bedrock of the modern rules-based international system.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article describes a shift from hypocrisy (bending rules) to indifference (openly disregarding them). Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states that this fear (of WW3) "acted as a grim stabiliser" in the past, but implies these guardrails are now weakening. Statement 3 is correct: The article explicitly uses Kofi Annan's phrase "problems without passports" for transnational issues.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions Truman's speech on "June 26, 1945" at the founding of the United Nations. October 24 is UN Day (Charter ratification), April 25 was the start of the San Francisco Conference, and December 10, 1948, is Universal Declaration of Human Rights day.

Explanation

The article argues that when a power like the US steps back from collective action, "the vacuum does not remain empty. Others — most notably China — step in, shaping institutions, norms and standards... The result is... a fragmentation of global governance itself."