24 February 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution establishes the Election Commission of India and vests in it the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. Article 326 deals with adult suffrage, Article 124 with the Supreme Court, and Article 352 with the proclamation of Emergency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Office and Terms of Office) Act, 2023 stipulates a selection committee of the Prime Minister, a Union Minister, and the Leader of Opposition, excluding the Chief Justice of India. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 324(5). Statement 3 is correct as per the Supreme Court's interpretation in Vineet Narain vs Union of India (1997).

Explanation

The article specifically states that the names of approximately 65 lakh voters were alleged to have been deleted during the SIR exercise in Bihar, which was challenged in the Supreme Court.

Explanation

As per Article 324(5), the Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, which requires a complex parliamentary process. This is the strongest safeguard for their independence. The tenure is 6 years or until 65, and appointment is not by a judicial collegium.

Explanation

Criminal law and criminal procedure are listed under Entry 1 and Entry 2 of the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule. This allows both the Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on these subjects, though a central law prevails in case of conflict.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC emphasized 'just deserts'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC condemned this practice, stating compensation is not a substitute for punishment. Statement 3 is correct as the case involved setting aside a Madras HC order that reduced a sentence under IPC Section 307.

Explanation

The trial court sentenced the convicts to three years' rigorous imprisonment along with a fine of ₹5,000 each. The Madras High Court, while reducing the jail term, enhanced the fine amount to ₹50,000 each, which was criticized by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The Supreme Court held that the rationale behind victim compensation is to rehabilitate the victim for the loss suffered. Punishment, in contrast, is punitive and aims to create deterrence and convey a social message. Treating compensation as a substitute undermines this distinct purpose.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the policy was announced by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and counter-terrorism in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the policy reaffirms that India does NOT associate terrorism with any religion, ethnicity, or civilization. Statement 3 is correct as the policy mentions CBRNED as a challenge. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the Prahaar policy lays out a strategy structured on seven key pillars. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The article states the policy seeks to deny terrorists, their financiers, and supporters access to funds, weapons, and safe havens. While other options might be related to security or social cohesion, this is the explicitly stated primary objective in the context of the policy's framework.

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for internal security, including formulating and coordinating the national policy and strategies to counter Left-Wing Extremism (LWE).

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states the insurgency has shrunk from 223 districts to just 11 currently. Statement 2 is correct: The Home Minister's target for decimation is March 2026. Statement 3 is correct: The article lists improved governance and socio-economic interventions as reasons for the near defeat.

Explanation

The article clearly states that according to partial data from the South Asia Terrorism Portal, there were 1,425 surrenders in Chhattisgarh in 2025. The other figures correspond to surrenders in Telangana (486), Maharashtra (103), and Andhra Pradesh (38).

Explanation

The article warns that corporates are trying to enter cleared areas and cites the Supreme Court's view that development cannot override the right to a healthy environment. The core challenge is to fill the security vacuum with governance that is sensitive to tribal concerns and ensures equitable, sustainable development.

Explanation

The article mentions that 'Around a fifth of Ukraine is contaminated by mines or unexploded ordnance, according to the U.N.'s Mine Action Service.' UNMAS is the specialized UN service that coordinates global mine action efforts, including assessment, clearance, and risk education.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the UN has verified 'over 15,000 civilian deaths' but clarifies 'the actual number is likely considerably higher.' Statement 2 is correct as per the World Bank report cited. Statement 3 is incorrect; Zelenskyy said 55,000 Ukrainian soldiers were killed, not Russian soldiers. This is a classic examiner trap swapping the nationality of casualties.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The total cost of reconstruction in Ukraine is estimated at around $588 billion over the next decade, the World Bank reported on Monday (February 23, 2026).' The other options are plausible but incorrect figures not supported by the provided text.

Explanation

The article directly states: 'The Kremlin is pushing for full control of Ukraine’s eastern Donetsk region and a ban on Western military support for Kyiv.' This is presented as a key element of the current stalemate. The other options describe broader or different war aims not specified in the provided content.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the government's Aardram Mission aims at transforming PHCs into FHCs. Ayushman Bharat is a national health insurance scheme, the National Health Mission is a broader program, and Swasthya Suraksha is not mentioned.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states Kerala's IMR was 5, which was slightly better than the United States' IMR of 5.6. Statement 2 is correct as per the Global Burden of Disease study mentioned, which identifies NCDs accounting for 84% of Kerala's disease burden. Statement 3 is incorrect; the public sector provides 47.5% of outpatient care in Kerala, which is far above the national average of 30.1%.

Explanation

The article states that nearly 50% of the adult population (aged 20 and above) in Kerala has hypertension, a prevalence second only to Punjab. The 25% figure refers to diabetes prevalence, 75% is not mentioned, and 12% refers to the hypertension control rate.

Explanation

The article directly states that Kerala experiences the highest rate of catastrophic health expenditure, driven by its greater morbidity (24.5% vs national 7.5%) and service utilization. While public investment is low (1.6% of SGDP), it is not cited as the primary driver. The article highlights NCDs, not communicable diseases, as the main burden, and does not mention reliance on imported technology.

Explanation

The IndiaAI Mission is a comprehensive program under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) to strengthen the AI ecosystem in India. It encompasses pillars like IndiaAI Compute Capacity, which includes building the national AI compute infrastructure.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'This was the first global AI summit hosted by a Global South nation.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the Delhi Declaration favours 'flexible guardrails over rigid compliance'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Microsoft's $50 billion commitment for the Global South, with $17.5 billion already for India. Hence, option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The government’s target of $200 billion in AI infrastructure investment over the next two years is not aspiration; the commitments already announced bring it within reach.' The other figures are close distractors representing individual corporate commitments mentioned.

Explanation

The MANAV vision, as described, emphasizes 'Ethical guardrails, accountable governance, sovereignty over data... broad access so that benefits reach a farmer in Madhya Pradesh as surely as an engineer in Bengaluru, and legal validity.' Its core is a human-centric, inclusive, and sovereign approach, not just supremacy or adoption of foreign models.

Explanation

As mentioned in the article, India's approach is grounded in expert recommendations of the National Technical Advisory Group on Immunisation (NTAGI). NTAGI is the apex body advising the Health Ministry on immunization policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The article states the nationwide programme targets girls aged 14 years and will be free across all States and UTs. Statement 2 is correct: India will use Gardasil, a quadrivalent HPV vaccine, for protection from HPV types 16 and 18 (cervical cancer) and types 6 and 11. Statement 3 is incorrect: The procurement is through a partnership with 'Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance', not solely by WHO.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Cervical cancer remains the second most common cancer among women in India, with nearly 80,000 new cases and over 42,000 deaths reported annually.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

As highlighted in the article, the programme 'directly addresses this challenge by preventing HPV infection before it can progress to cancer.' It is a preventive measure targeting adolescent girls (aged 14) before potential exposure to the virus, not a treatment for existing cancer.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship has seen its net allocation rise to ₹9,885 crores in the Budget 2026-27, signaling a pivot towards human capital development.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions ₹6,140 crore earmarked under PM SETU to upgrade 1,000 ITIs. Statement 2 is incorrect; the allocation of ₹23,100 crore is for Poshan 2.0, not Poshan 3.0. Statement 3 is correct as the budget proposes a High-Powered 'Education to Employment and Enterprises' Standing Committee to examine the impact of AI and technology on jobs.

Explanation

The article provides the PLFS 2022-23 data, stating that the urban female LFPR (age 15+) is 28.0%, highlighting a significant rural-urban divide as the rural female LFPR is 47.6%. The overall female LFPR is 41.7%.

Explanation

The article argues that investing in the care economy (e.g., training caregivers, Poshan 2.0) reduces the unpaid domestic burden on women, enabling their entry into paid work. This is framed not just as welfare but as a growth strategy, with a potential 1-2% GDP gain from a 10 percentage-point rise in female LFPR.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Prahaar' policy was announced by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and counter-terrorism in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The IEA was created in 1974 after the oil embargo following the Yom Kippur War. Statement 2 is correct: The article confirms the IEA's charter restricts full membership to OECD countries. Statement 3 is incorrect: India became an associate member in 2017, not 2020.

Explanation

The article states that the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was endorsed by 88 countries and international organisations. The figure 61 refers to the signatories at the previous Paris AI Action Summit in 2025.

Explanation

The article defines 'Prahaar' as India's first counter-terrorism policy, describing it as a 'comprehensive framework' structured on seven key pillars including prevention and zero tolerance. While military action (like Operation Sindoor) is a part of the response, the policy's core is its structured, preventive, and holistic approach.

Explanation

Both India and Brazil are members of the G-4 (with Germany and Japan) for UNSC reform and the BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) grouping of emerging economies. The other groupings do not include both nations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the target is $30 billion, not $50 billion. Statement 2 is correct; IBSA is a trilateral forum involving India, Brazil, and South Africa. Statement 3 is correct; the article mentions agreements on critical minerals and digital cooperation were signed.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that India and Brazil were both the highest taxed countries by the U.S., facing 50% tariffs each. The other options are plausible distractors but are not mentioned.

Explanation

Lula, drawing from his trade union background, argued that the way to tackle uncertainty was for countries to 'unionise' and bargain collectively, as individual deals leave smaller nations at a disadvantage. This is the core strategic message from his statement.

Explanation

Article 342 of the Constitution empowers the President to specify Scheduled Tribes for a state or union territory, after consultation with the Governor of that state. This is a fundamental static GK fact linked to the constitutional framework protecting tribal identities discussed in the article.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Supreme Court ruled that the Act cannot be applied to Scheduled Tribes under any circumstances, ending the previous practice of applying it based on 'Hinduisation'. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as per the article. The case was Nawang v. Bahadur, and the Court affirmed that extending the Act is a legislative function of Parliament.

Explanation

The article clearly states the Supreme Court delivered this verdict on October 8, 2025. The other options are distractors. 2026 is the publication year of the article, not the verdict year.

Explanation

The article explains that the verdict reaffirms the constitutional guarantee to protect the distinct social and cultural identity of tribal communities. By ruling that the Hindu Succession Act cannot be applied to them, the Court upheld the special protections afforded to Scheduled Tribes, preventing forced assimilation through 'Hinduisation'.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions Section 69 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). The BNS is the new penal code that replaced the Indian Penal Code. The other options are different statutes: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita replaced CrPC, and the Indian Evidence Act is still in force.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the court refused bail. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the court specifically stated, 'There can be no quarrel with the proposition that criminal law cannot be invoked merely because a relationship fails or marriage does not materialise.'

Explanation

The article states, 'In its order passed on February 17, the court noted...'. January 4, 2026, is when the accused was taken into custody. November 2025 is when the first complaint was lodged. February 24, 2026, is the news publication date.

Explanation

The court's core observation was that the accused gave repeated assurances despite being aware of his family's insistence on horoscope matching, and the subsequent refusal on that ground raised questions about the genuineness of the promise. This distinction from a simple consensual relationship turning sour is what attracted Section 69.

Explanation

The article states that Christopher Yeaw, the U.S. Assistant Secretary of State, made the accusations while addressing the Conference on Disarmament in Geneva. This is the primary multilateral disarmament negotiating forum.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: New START was between the United States and Russia, not China. Statement 2 is correct: The article states the treaty restricted the US and Russia to 1,550 deployed nuclear warheads each. Statement 3 is correct: The article details the US accusation of a 10-tonne yield test by China on June 22, 2020.

Explanation

The article explicitly quotes Christopher Yeaw stating, "Beijing is on track to have the fissile material necessary for more than 1,000 nuclear warheads by 2030." This is a direct data point from the source.

Explanation

The core US argument, as presented by Christopher Yeaw, is that China has "massively expanded its nuclear arsenal without transparency or any indication of China's intent or end point." The article focuses on the lack of transparency and the scale of the build-up as the main concern, leading to demands for inclusion in arms control.

Explanation

SECI is a Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It is the primary implementing agency for several renewable energy schemes in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the auction was conducted by SECI under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the prices were 40-50% less (lower), not higher, than the H2Global benchmark. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 10-year, fixed-price offtake agreements were offered.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that SECI floated a tender for an aggregated demand of up to 724,000 tonnes of green ammonia annually. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The article states that the contracted volumes contribute to about 30% of imported ammonia, offering 'price predictability and greater insulation from global gas market volatility, currency risks and geopolitical pressures.' The other options are incorrect: it does not immediately replace all consumption, is not focused on exporting conventional fertilizers, and still involves production subsidies.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions strengthening 'school health services under Ayushman Bharat — health and wellness centre initiative'. AB-HWCs are the sub-centres and Primary Health Centres transformed to deliver Comprehensive Primary Health Care, making them a key platform for intervention.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the Economic Survey 2025-26 acknowledged the link, the article does not claim it was the 'first' document to do so. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article explicitly states 'excessive screen use does not cause neurodevelopmental conditions such as ADHD or autism spectrum disorders'.

Explanation

The article states: 'five per cent to seven per cent of school-aged children have ADHD'. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the specific data point mentioned.

Explanation

The article states: 'Childhood vulnerability has been amplified by a transformed digital landscape. The rise in mental health concerns parallels the spread of smartphones and low-priced Internet data'. While other options are contributing factors, the digital landscape is highlighted as the primary amplifier.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the three-member committee was chaired by Justice (retd) Kurian Joseph. The other options are names of other Supreme Court judges not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the report is described as a plea for a fresh federal compact or 'structural reset'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the report 'rightly reject(s) the idea of "One Nation, One Election"'. Statement 3 is correct as 'transferring the responsibility of assembly elections to the State Election Commission' is listed among its proposals.

Explanation

The article mentions the 'Rajamannar Committee (1969–71)' as a historical precedent that made a case for state autonomy. The other commissions are related to Centre-State relations or administration but are not the specific precedent cited.

Explanation

The concluding paragraph of the article explicitly states: 'The principle of political, cultural and economic non-domination is the foundation of an enduring and just republic.' The other options contradict the report's emphasis on diversity and negotiated accommodation.

Explanation

Internal security, including tackling Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) or Naxalism, falls under the mandate of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It coordinates with state police and central armed police forces (CAPFs) like the CRPF.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which states Devuji's surrender marks the near end of LWE ahead of the March 31 deadline. Statement 2 is incorrect; the estimated remaining armed cadre is around 180, not 1800. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists these states as part of the 'red corridor'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Nearly 2,000 Maoist cadres have surrendered since 2024.' This data point is crucial for understanding the scale of the surrender policy's success.

Explanation

The article concludes that policy and politics need to protect development and representation, specifically mentioning that 'Issues like forest rights and just and transparent land acquisition must be addressed.' This addresses the root socio-economic causes.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) provided the figures in its RTI reply dated January 30, 2026. The CBDT is the apex body for direct tax administration in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clarifies that 'brought to tax' figures are after assessment and notice dispatch, but are 'still not those for taxes finally collected'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Multi Agency Group was announced for the Pandora Papers, not the Panama Papers.

Explanation

The article provides a clear breakdown: ₹13,800 crore for Panama Papers, ₹115 crore for Paradise Papers, and ₹686 crore for Pandora Papers. The total is ₹14,601 crore.

Explanation

The article explains that 'brought to tax' figures were derived after assessment completion, dispatch of notices, and receipt of replies, marking a step towards prosecution and penalty. It is a more advanced procedural stage than mere detection, but does not mean final recovery (Option B) or the start of judicial prosecution (Option A).

Explanation

The judgment was delivered by Justice Vivek Kumar Singh of the Allahabad High Court, as clearly mentioned in the article. The Allahabad High Court has jurisdiction over the state of Uttar Pradesh, where the relevant state law applies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Court explicitly ruled that a live-in relationship of an interfaith couple does NOT constitute an offence under the said Act. Statement 2 is correct as the Court held that the right to choose a partner is part of Article 21. Statement 3 is correct as the Court clubbed together 12 petitions filed by interfaith couples.

Explanation

The article states that the Court clubbed together 12 petitions filed by seven Muslim and five Hindu women. This exact numerical and community-wise breakdown is a key factual detail from the news.

Explanation

The Court's central reasoning, as quoted in the article, was that the fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution 'stands on a much higher pedestal' and includes the right to freedom of choice, to choose a partner, and to live with dignity. While Articles 14 and 15 were also considered, Article 21 was the primary anchor.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government's top policy think tank NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) released the report on the asset monetisation and IPO plan. NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: target is ₹1.79 trillion ($20 billion) by 2029/30 financial year. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the government has backed away from outright privatisation plans and is focusing on IPOs and asset monetisation. Statement 3 is correct: the first phase raised ₹5.3 trillion, nearly 90% of the ₹6 trillion target.

Explanation

The article specifies that the government aims to divest stakes in seven railway companies through IPOs that could potentially fetch ₹837 billion by 2030. ₹170 billion is the target for the coming financial year (2026-27). ₹310 billion is the target from power firm subsidiaries, and ₹483 billion is from Coal India and NLC India subsidiaries.

Explanation

The article explains that funds raised via asset monetisation go directly to firms to reinvest and can limit the burden on government finances to recapitalise these firms while maintaining their status as government entities. This is a key distinction from privatisation, which involves a change in ownership.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the conservative-majority court ruled that Trump had exceeded his authority in using a 1977 law, the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), to impose sudden tariffs.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the 10% tariffs are justified to deal with balance-of-payments deficits. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Supreme Court ruled 6-3 that Trump exceeded his authority under the IEEPA. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly states the new duty lasts for 150 days unless extended by Congress, making it temporary, not permanent.

Explanation

The article directly quotes Erica York stating that Mr. Trump's new tariff will apply to $1.2 trillion worth of imports on an annual basis. This is a key data point for factual recall.

Explanation

The article explains that the Supreme Court ruling clipped the President's 'tariff wings', meaning his unilateral power under IEEPA was curtailed. The new 150-day tariff is seen as a bridge requiring Congressional extension, indicating a shift towards requiring legislative backing for durable trade policy, not executive action alone.

Explanation

The article states that U.S. Trade Representative Jamieson Greer announced the administration was launching a series of 301 investigations. The USTR is the executive agency responsible for developing and coordinating US international trade policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Section 122 allows tariffs of up to 15% (not 10%) for 150 days. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Court left the messy issue of refunds to lower courts and Customs, it was not automatic.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "...all the money collected from the IEEPA tariffs, $133 billion as of mid-December." The other options are plausible but incorrect figures.

Explanation

The article cites Bryan Riley arguing that Section 122 was meant for "fundamental international payments problems" arising when the US dollar was tied to gold, making it potentially obsolete for addressing general trade deficits today.

Explanation

The IndiaAI Mission is a flagship initiative to boost artificial intelligence in India. The nodal ministry for AI policy and promotion is the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), which oversees such technological missions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states India is the most populous country and third-largest electricity producer, linking this to electricity cost challenges for AI. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says the electronics ecosystem 'is not a heavy-hitter that holds strategic leverage' and that achieving capacity 'takes decades'. Statement 3 is correct, directly quoting the article's point about the risk of India being a 'net inference importer' due to capital challenges and foreign-dominated data centre spending.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'India’s target to be carbon neutral by 2070'. This is a key national commitment under its climate policy (Nationally Determined Contribution - NDC). The other options are distractors, with 2060 being a target year for some other countries.

Explanation

The term 'net inference importer' describes a scenario where India's AI usage (inference) relies on computing infrastructure located in or owned by foreign entities. This creates dependencies, risks related to data governance, and means a significant portion of the economic value generated flows abroad, undermining sovereignty. The article contrasts this with the sovereign infrastructure of Aadhaar and UPI.

Explanation

Russia justified its invasion by citing the threat of Ukraine joining NATO, a transatlantic military alliance. Article mentions Russia argued Kyiv's NATO membership would threaten its security.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Russia occupies nearly 20%, not 30%, of Ukrainian territory. Statement 3 is correct as the report was a joint World Bank, EU, and UN publication.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the cost of post-war reconstruction is estimated at around $558 billion over the next decade, according to the joint World Bank, EU, and UN report. The other figures are plausible-sounding distractors.

Explanation

The article states the worldwide fallout includes many European countries increasing defense spending due to the conflict. The other options are incorrect: defense spending has increased, NATO remains active and relevant, and sanctions on Russia persist.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the Supreme Court invoked its plenary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution. Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the Special Bench entitled the Calcutta HC Chief Justice to deploy Civil Judges (both senior and junior divisions) with experience of not less than three years. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Court specified that Aadhaar, Class 10 admit card, and Class 10 pass certificate would be considered as proof, not Aadhaar alone. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the Court allowed EC to publish a voter list on February 28, 2026.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that the Calcutta High Court Chief Justice had come upon a whopping 50 lakh claims and objections raised by voters excluded on grounds of logical discrepancies and unmapping.

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court's decision was prompted by the persistent 'trust deficit' between the Mamata Banerjee government and the Election Commission of India. This lack of trust necessitated judicial oversight to ensure the integrity of the electoral roll revision.

Explanation

The article explicitly states the ICCT is 'an independent research organisation providing technical and scientific analysis to environmental regulators.' It is not a UN agency, an inter-governmental regulator, or an Indian government body.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states 'domestic manufacturing already supplies close to 80 per cent of the country’s EV sales,' not imports. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article says India's EV outlook 'will be heavily shaped by policy—such as proposed fuel-efficiency norms...—rather than by market forces alone.'

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'domestic manufacturing already supplies close to 80 per cent of the country’s EV sales' and later reiterates 'Nearly 80 per cent of EVs sold in India are domestically manufactured.'

Explanation

The article quotes Amit Bhatt of ICCT stating the transition is an economic opportunity, where the existing 80% domestic manufacturing 'foundation' can 'scale rapidly, strengthening domestic value chains, creating jobs.' The other options, while possible secondary effects, are not highlighted as the primary economic opportunity in the article.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the 'Jharkhand High Court' quashed the FIR. Justice Anil Kumar Choudhary is a judge of the Jharkhand High Court.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court noted 'no allegation that anyone other than the informant has seen the posting.' Statement 2 is correct as the judgment emphasized the 'class of citizens' requirement. Statement 3 is incorrect; the charge quashed was under Section 67 of the IT Act, not Section 66.

Explanation

The court outlined a three-part test: the act must be deliberate, malicious, and intentional to outrage religious feelings. Causing physical violence is not a required ingredient under Section 299 BNS, which deals with outraging feelings, not physical harm.

Explanation

The core of the court's reasoning, as stated in the article, was the absence of allegations that the petitioner acted 'deliberately, maliciously, and intentionally to outrage the religious feelings of a class of citizens,' which is essential under Section 299 BNS.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare is piloting the Seeds Bill, 2025. This ministry is responsible for agriculture-related policies and legislation in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the new Bill proposes mandatory registration. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Bill replaces the Seeds Act, 1966, not 1976. Statement 3 is incorrect as the penalty proposed is ₹30 lakh, not ₹50 lakh.

Explanation

The article provides a specific data point: the annual requirement of seeds was estimated at 48.20 lakh tonnes in 2024-25. Option C (53.15 lakh tonnes) is a close distractor as it represents the availability, not the requirement.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the existing Seeds Act, 1966 regulates only notified kinds and varieties of seeds and does not provide for regulation of research hybrid varieties or varieties that are not notified. This is a primary gap the new Bill seeks to fill.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the latest data on oil import dependency is released by the Petroleum Planning & Analysis Cell (PPAC) of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. PPAC is the nodal agency for data on the petroleum sector.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article (88.3% in FY25). Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states India is a 'net exporter of petroleum products' while being a net importer of crude oil. Statement 3 is incorrect as the IEA said India, not China, will be the biggest driver of global oil demand growth.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'the country’s oil import dependency was 88.6% in April-January'. 88.2% was the figure for the corresponding period of FY25, making it a close distractor. 87.4% was the figure for FY23.

Explanation

The article directly states that India's heavy reliance on imported crude 'makes its economy vulnerable to global oil price fluctuations' and that this impacts the trade deficit, forex reserves, the rupee’s exchange rate, and inflation. The other options are opposite or not the primary concern highlighted.

Explanation

State Election Commissions are established under Article 243K of the Constitution to superintend, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls and conduct elections to Panchayats. Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India for national and state legislature elections.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the conference is being held at Bharat Mandapam, not Vigyan Bhawan. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the focus is on sharing technology, EVMs, and electoral rolls.

Explanation

The article clearly states the conference is being held 'After a hiatus of 27 years', with the last such meet held in 1999. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

As per the PIB release quoted in the article, the conference aims to provide a 'platform for constructive exchange of ideas and reinforce the spirit of cooperative federalism in electoral management'. While sharing tech/EVMs is an agenda item, the overarching objective is cooperative federalism.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Supreme Court perused the CAQM's report and directed the government to give effect to its long-term recommendations. CAQM is the dedicated statutory pollution watchdog for Delhi-NCR.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the court's direction to submit a proposal for shifting coal-based industries. Statement 2 is incorrect; the order is specifically about new coal-based thermal power plants, not all industries. Statement 3 is correct as the court directed Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Rajasthan to issue public notices.

Explanation

The article clearly states the Supreme Court asked ministries to suggest measures to ensure no new coal-based thermal power plant is established 'within 300 km of Delhi', as recommended by the CAQM. The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The context of the order, as stated in the article, is 'amid the Capital battling air pollution.' The directive is based on CAQM's recommendations to address emissions from coal-based sources, which are a major contributor to poor air quality. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that executive orders directed the 'Office of the US Trade Representative' to initiate investigations under Section 301. This is the primary US agency responsible for developing and coordinating international trade policy.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the ruling stated IEEPA does NOT authorize presidential tariffs. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article says tariffs under Section 232 are 'unaffected'. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's explicit mention that Section 301 tariffs are 'unaffected'. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Section 122 tariff can be imposed for 150 days and extended further only with congressional approval.' This is a precise data point for factual recall.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that 'A bilateral agreement anchored in treaty law cannot be undone by a single ruling or executive order' and that 'durability is a source of comparative advantage.' This is the core strategic advantage highlighted for India.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Delhi High Court set aside the December 5, 2024 verdict of the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) which had rejected the disability pension. The AFT is the correct statutory body for adjudicating service matters of defence personnel.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court ruled the opposite: vague labels like 'lifestyle disorder' cannot be used to deny pension without concrete proof. Statement 2 is correct as the court insisted the medical board must record specific causative factors. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's 'Final Relief' section which mentions 50% pension and an 8-week payment deadline.

Explanation

The article states that the Release Medical Board assessed primary hypertension at 30% and Coronary Artery Disease at 30%, fixing a 'composite disability of 50 per cent for life'. The court's final relief also directed the grant of 'disability pension at 50 per cent for life'.

Explanation

The core ruling of the court, as highlighted throughout the article, is that terms like 'lifestyle disorder' are mere conclusions. Denying disability pension based on such vague labels, without the medical board specifying the exact causative lifestyle factors, is impermissible. This protects statutory entitlements from arbitrary denial.

Explanation

The article states the State Assembly resolution is sent to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA handles internal security, border management, and centre-state relations, making it the nodal ministry for such administrative changes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per Article 3. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the State's opinion is 'not binding'. Statement 3 is correct as the article explains that changing the country's name requires amending Article 1 via the procedure under Article 368.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In 2011, the name of Orissa was changed to Odisha through the Orissa (Alteration of Name) Act...'. The year 2007 is a distractor as it was when Uttaranchal was renamed Uttarakhand.

Explanation

The article states the Supreme Court rejected the pleas, 'stating that both names are already official and the Constitution refers to both ‘Bharat’ and ‘India,’ signalling that they may be used interchangeably.' This is the key legal takeaway, not the procedure or possibility of change.

Explanation

The article states that the matter was considered in the Ministry of Home Affairs and, with the approval of Minister Amit Shah, the draft note was circulated to other departments. The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for matters related to state boundaries and names.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are factually correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect. Changing a state's name requires an amendment to the First Schedule of the Constitution (which lists states and territories), not the Eighth Schedule (which lists official languages).

Explanation

The article clearly states: 'The Kerala Assembly on June 24, 2024, had unanimously adopted a resolution urging the Centre to officially change the State’s name to Keralam.' February 24, 2026, is the Union Cabinet approval date. November 1, 1956, is Kerala Piravi Day.

Explanation

The article repeatedly mentions Article 3 as the governing provision. It states: 'According to Article 3 of the Constitution, Parliament may by law alter the name of any existing State.' The specific procedure involving the President's referral is part of the proviso to Article 3.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Oman is mediating the indirect negotiations between the U.S. and Iran and has confirmed the third round of talks in Geneva.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the U.S. negotiator Steve Witkoff's remarks. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Iran says it is ready to talk only about its nuclear programme, rejecting broader U.S. demands on missiles and regional activities. Statement 3 is correct as it accurately describes the U.S. withdrawal from the JCPOA.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Oman has confirmed a third round of talks will take place in Geneva on February 26. The other dates are distractors: Feb 17 is when Iran's FM addressed the UN, and Feb 22 and 24 are other mentioned dates in the article.

Explanation

A security analyst in the article argues that even if Iran makes a nuclear deal, Israel would still see it as a threat, and surrendering missiles would not prevent attack. Therefore, Iranians ask themselves 'why should they give up their last deterrent?' referring to these strategic capabilities.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the 'Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi' approved the three railway projects. The CCEA is the correct nodal body for such significant economic and infrastructure project approvals.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions 'Spanning a total length of 307 km'. Statement 2 is correct as it states the projects will 'enhance connectivity to nearly 5,407 villages'. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article highlights the projects are for 'decongesting these busy sections' and facilitating 'additional freight traffic', not specifically for high-speed passenger services.

Explanation

The article's press statement specifically mentions that the projects will help in 'lowering CO2 emissions (30 crore kg)'. The other options are close distractors. This data point is crucial for questions on environmental impact of infrastructure projects.

Explanation

The article clearly states, 'The projects are being undertaken under the PM-Gati Shakti National Master Plan'. This plan focuses on integrated infrastructure development for multi-modal connectivity, which is the core context of these railway capacity expansion projects.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Prahaar' was announced by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and counter-terrorism in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the policy document states that India does NOT associate terrorism with any religion, ethnicity or civilisation. Statement 3 is correct as the policy underlines threats from encryption, dark web, crypto wallets, and misuse of drones.

Explanation

The article clearly mentions that 'Prahaar' lays out a multi-layered plan structured around seven pillars. These include prevention, response, capacity building, human rights, countering radicalization, global alignment, and recovery.

Explanation

The article states that beyond enforcement, the government engages doctors, psychologists, lawyers, NGOs and religious/community leaders to sensitise and reintegrate affected communities. This is part of the policy's holistic, whole-of-society approach to counter conditions that enable terrorism.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) unveiled the PRAHAAR strategy document. The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security, policing, and counter-terrorism within India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls PRAHAAR India's 'first publicly articulated national counter terror strategy document'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies the document does 'not suddenly create new agencies or powers' but consolidates existing ones. Statement 3 is correct as the article lists 'firm adherence to human rights and the rule of law' as a named pillar.

Explanation

The article clearly states that the PRAHAAR document is 'Running into eight pages'. The other options are distractors: 34 pages is the length of the US NSCT document, and 78 pages is the length of the UK's CONTEST strategy, both mentioned for comparison.

Explanation

The article's analysis highlights that PRAHAAR 'does not break these down into public objectives, sub-programmes or agency-specific tasks' and 'does not embed public reporting or independent strategy-level review'. This is contrasted with the detailed implementation plans of Western strategies. The document explicitly avoids linking terror to religion (opposite of option A).

Explanation

The article states the rollout is according to sources from the Union Health Ministry. Public health vaccination campaigns fall under the mandate of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the single-dose regimen is in line with WHO SAGE recommendations. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the indigenous Cervavac has not yet been approved by WHO and the campaign will initially use Gardasil. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the U-win portal will be used for booking slots, a process similar to CoWIN.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "Every year, 1.15 crore girls who turn 14 years of age will be eligible for the HPV vaccine." The figure 1.25 lakh refers to annual cervical cancer cases, and 75,000 refers to annual deaths, making them close distractors.

Explanation

The article's core focus is preventing cervical cancer. It states that persistent HPV infection causes nearly 85% of cervical cancers, and vaccination prevents most infections and thereby cancers. While other options are related health goals, the campaign's direct and stated objective is cervical cancer prevention.

Explanation

The article states that the Competition Commission of India (CCI) imposed a Rs 213.14 crore penalty on WhatsApp over its 2021 privacy policy update for abuse of dominance under the Competition Act, 2002.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states NCLAT upheld the penalty. Statement 2 is incorrect; NCLAT upheld the finding of abuse of dominance under Section 4 but set aside the specific finding of 'leveraging' under Section 4(2)(e). Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the bench is led by CJI Surya Kant.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the penalty amount as Rs 213.14 crore imposed by CCI and upheld by NCLAT. The other figures are distractors.

Explanation

The article explains that CCI and NCLAT treated WhatsApp's mandatory data sharing as an 'abuse of dominance' under Section 4. They reasoned that in zero-price digital markets, privacy and control over personal data function as non-price parameters of service quality, and imposing unfair conditions regarding data constitutes harm under competition law.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued the notification on February 13, 2026. The RBI is the regulator for banking activities in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the RBI notification mandating 'fully secured' lending. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states lenders cannot provide money for proprietary trading, except in specific cases like market making. Statement 3 is correct as the RBI said at least 50% of collateral for guarantees must be cash.

Explanation

The article quotes RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra stating that lenders are well capitalised, with an average capital adequacy ratio of around 17% against the regulatory minimum of 11.5%.

Explanation

The core objective, inferred from the context of 'tightening norms', is prudential regulation. By mandating full collateral, the RBI aims to protect banks from defaults by brokers, thereby reducing systemic credit risk and ensuring the stability of the financial system.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the panel was established by the United Nations. The UN Secretary-General announced its appointment, and it was formed following the UN's Global Digital Compact.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article calls it 'the first global scientific body on Artificial Intelligence'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the panel was created under the Global Digital Compact from the UN Summit of the Future, not the Paris Agreement. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions '40 experts' and its aim to generate 'evidence-based insights'.

Explanation

The article directly quotes UN Secretary-General António Guterres announcing the panel as 'comprising 40 experts'. The other numbers are plausible but incorrect distractors.

Explanation

Prof. Ravindran himself stated he is 'honoured to be representing India in this panel of experts and the voice of the Global South.' This is the core diplomatic and strategic significance highlighted, rather than funding, strategy completion, or technical superiority.

Explanation

Article 142 of the Indian Constitution grants the Supreme Court the power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing 'complete justice' in any cause or matter pending before it. This extraordinary power was invoked by the SC to ensure voters cleared in supplementary lists are deemed part of the final electoral roll.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC permitted deployment of judges from Odisha and Jharkhand. Statement 2 is incorrect; February 14, 2026, was the cut-off date for document submission, not the final roll publication date, which is February 28, 2026. Statement 3 is correct as the Court invoked Article 142.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Chief Justice of Calcutta High Court communicated that there are 50 lakh cases with logical discrepancies or unmapped categories to be decided in the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls in West Bengal.

Explanation

The article states that on February 20, the Supreme Court noted the 'trust deficit' between the Bengal Government and the Election Commission of India (ECI), and later directed the deployment of judges. This indicates that addressing this administrative and trust issue was a key rationale for the judicial intervention.

Explanation

The article discusses the ED's powers under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002, specifically referencing Sections 5 and 2(1)(u). The ED is the designated agency for enforcing the PMLA.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Delhi HC used a broad, not narrow, interpretation of 'proceeds of crime'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Punjab and Haryana HC in 'Seema Garg' disagreed with the Delhi HC's expansive view, creating a conflict.

Explanation

The article states the Delhi High Court held on February 16, 2026, in the case of 'Arun Suri vs ED'. The other years are distractors: 2022 is when the Supreme Court upheld PMLA's constitutionality in 'Vijay Madanlal Choudhary', and 2023 is when the SC made an observation in 'Pavana Dibbur'.

Explanation

As per the article, the court reasoned that the law empowers the ED to attach other assets of equivalent value to ensure the accused does not enjoy the fruits of the crime. This was based on the interpretation of Section 2(1)(u) and the concept of 'alternative attachable property' introduced in the 2019 'Axis Bank' case.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India. This article provides for the appointment, oath, and conditions of service of the CAG, who is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme facilitates the installation of rooftop solar panels, not wind turbines. Statement 3 is incorrect; the conference was organized by the CAG office, not the MNRE.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the vision is to enhance per capita electricity consumption from 1,460 kWh at present to higher targets. The other options are the target for 2030 (2,000 kWh) or distractors.

Explanation

The article clearly states the scheme aims to provide 'free electricity to households by facilitating the installation of rooftop solar panels'. Auditing discoms is a CAG action, not the scheme's objective. Increasing consumption is a broader sector vision, and organizing conferences is an event, not the scheme's primary goal.

Explanation

DGCA is the national regulatory body for civil aviation, responsible for safety oversight and regulation. It functions under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Civil Aviation, as mentioned in the article's context of aviation safety regulator.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the safety ranking is for Non-Scheduled Operators (NSOPs), not scheduled commercial airlines. Statement 3 is incorrect; the high-level meeting was after an air ambulance crash in Jharkhand (not Maharashtra) that killed seven. The Maharashtra crash involved a chartered jet and killed then Deputy CM Ajit Pawar.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that pilots found violating FDTL or attempting to land below safety minima may face license suspensions of up to five years. This is a key data point highlighting the stricter penalty regime.

Explanation

The core objective, as repeatedly stressed in the article, is to make safety the 'absolute priority, superseding all commercial considerations, charter commitments, or VIP movements'. The other options are either not mentioned (revenue, congestion) or are specific actions (monitoring older aircraft) within the broader safety objective.