25 February 2026, Questions & Answers
144 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
144 questions · 0 topics covered · 29 min revision
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This page contains 144 current affairs questions with answers from 25 February 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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144 QsWhich ministry/department is primarily responsible for formulating India's Foreign Trade Policy (FTP)?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of External Affairs
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) is formulated by the Department of Commerce, which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This ministry is the nodal agency for promoting India's international trade.
Consider the following statements regarding India's recent trade strategy:
1. India's network of Free Trade Agreements is projected to cover nearly 71% of its total export basket by 2026.
2. The India-EU Free Trade Agreement eliminates tariffs on all traded goods and services between the two economies.
3. A key objective of India's trade agreements is to integrate Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises into Global Value Chains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's projection. Statement 2 is incorrect; the India-EU FTA reduces or eliminates tariffs on over 90% of traded goods, not all goods and services. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly mentions integrating MSMEs into GVCs as a benefit.
According to the Department of Commerce's 2025 Year-End Review cited in the article, what was the total value of India's merchandise and services exports?
- A.$750.50 billion
- B.$800.00 billion
- C.$825.25 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$850.75 billion
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Explanation
The article specifically states that India recorded total exports (merchandise and services combined) of $825.25 billion according to the 2025 Year-End Review. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic rationale, as per the article, behind India's shift towards comprehensive FTAs with advanced economies like the EU and the US?
- A.To replace domestic manufacturing with imports of finished goods
- B.To reduce its diplomatic engagement with neighboring countries
- C.To gain preferential access to lucrative markets and diversify export destinations✓ Correct Answer
- D.To align its trade policy exclusively with the frameworks of the World Bank
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that deeper engagement with advanced economies provides India with preferential access to high-demand markets, strengthens export potential, and diversifies trade to avoid over-dependence on any single geography. This is the core strategic rationale highlighted.
Which committee, chaired by a former Supreme Court judge, submitted a report and draft bill on data protection in July 2018, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee✓ Correct Answer
- B.Justice R.M. Lodha Committee
- C.Justice J.S. Verma Committee
- D.Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah Committee
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the government constituted a committee under the chairmanship of Justice B.N. Sri Krishna to deliberate on the data protection framework, which submitted its report and draft bill in July 2018.
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment to the RTI Act through the DPDP Act, 2023:
1. Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act amends Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act.
2. The amended provision provides a blanket exemption for disclosing any information related to personal information.
3. The original Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act allowed disclosure of personal information if it served a larger public interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is correct as the amendment creates a 'blanket exemption'. Statement 3 is correct as the original RTI provision allowed disclosure if larger public interest justified it. Hence, all three statements are accurate.
In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgment in the Puttaswamy case, declaring the right to privacy as a fundamental right?
- A.2015
- B.2017✓ Correct Answer
- C.2019
- D.2021
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions 'The Supreme Court in Puttaswamy (2017) had declared the right to privacy as a fundamental right'. This is a static fact crucial for polity questions.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised by the petitioners challenging the amendment to the RTI Act via the DPDP Act?
- A.It violates the federal structure of the Constitution.
- B.It infringes upon the right to equality under Article 14.
- C.It is ultra vires the Constitution as it abridges the right to information.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It contradicts the Directive Principles of State Policy.
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Explanation
The article states the amendment 'has been challenged in the Supreme Court... on the ground that it is ultra vires the Constitution.' The core issue is the perceived abridgment of the right to information, which the Supreme Court has held as integral to Articles 19 and 21.
The Tamil Nadu Startup and Innovation Mission (TANSIM) was established as which type of legal entity?
- A.A statutory body under the Tamil Nadu government
- B.A Section 8 company✓ Correct Answer
- C.A society registered under the Societies Registration Act
- D.A public-private partnership (PPP) project
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that StartupTN was set up as a Section 8 company as part of the Tamil Nadu Startup and Innovation Mission (TANSIM) in 2021. A Section 8 company is a legal entity established for promoting charitable objectives.
Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's economic performance:
1. It had the highest real economic growth rate among major Indian states in 2024-25.
2. It contributes a higher percentage to India's GDP than its share of the country's population.
3. It has the lowest Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) among all Indian states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Tamil Nadu's real economic growth rate of 11.19% for 2024-25 marks the highest for any State in the country. Statement 2 is correct as with 6% of the population, it contributed 9.21% to national GDP. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article says the state has the second-lowest multidimensional poverty index, not the lowest.
According to the article, what was Tamil Nadu's share in India's electronics exports in 2024-25?
- A.About 25%
- B.About 33%
- C.More than 41%✓ Correct Answer
- D.Nearly 50%
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Tamil Nadu accounted for more than 41% of India’s electronics exports in 2024-25. This is a key data point highlighting the state's dominance in this high-growth sector.
What is identified as a primary structural challenge threatening Tamil Nadu's 'industrialisation from below' model based on MSMEs?
- A.Lack of raw material availability within the state
- B.High cost of land for industrial expansion
- C.The need for MSMEs to adopt Industry 4.0 technologies amidst market uncertainties✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over-reliance on foreign direct investment (FDI)
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Explanation
The article identifies that the servitization of manufacturing and rapid diffusion of digital technologies make adoption a necessity for MSMEs. However, market uncertainties and thin margins deter investments in new tech, creating a long-term threat of productivity divergence with larger firms, thereby endangering the decentralized MSME-led growth model.
According to the article, which international agency provided the data on China's market share in critical mineral refining?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.International Energy Agency (IEA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.World Bank
- D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'According to the International Energy Agency, China accounts for an average market share of around 70 per cent in the refining of 19 of the 20 most strategic critical minerals...'
Consider the following statements regarding the Pax Silica initiative:
1. It is a US-led initiative aimed at reducing dependency on China for critical minerals.
2. India was a founding member when the first group of countries signed the declaration in mid-December last year.
3. The initiative's factsheet refers to the goal of reducing 'coercive dependencies' in supply chains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article describes Pax Silica as a 'US-led initiative' to loosen China's stranglehold. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states 'India was initially excluded when the first group of countries signed up last year in mid-December.' Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the Pax Silica factsheet refers to 'coercive dependencies'.
According to the International Energy Agency data cited in the article, what is China's approximate market share in the production of rare-earth-containing permanent magnets?
- A.70%
- B.85%
- C.94%✓ Correct Answer
- D.99%
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Explanation
The article states: '...and 94 per cent of the production of rare-earth-containing permanent magnets.' The other options are distractors; 70% is China's share in refining strategic minerals, not magnet production.
What is the primary strategic objective of the Pax Silica initiative as highlighted in the article?
- A.To promote free trade agreements among member countries.
- B.To reduce member states' vulnerabilities stemming from concentrated supply chains.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish a common regulatory framework for artificial intelligence.
- D.To counter the military expansion of China in the Indo-Pacific region.
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Explanation
The article states: 'Pax Silica's aim, therefore, is to reduce the vulnerabilities of its member states.' It focuses on supply chain security for critical minerals, not trade agreements, AI regulation, or direct military countering.
As per the Constitution, the power to alter the name of a state lies with?
- A.The President of India
- B.The Parliament of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.The State Legislative Assembly
- D.The Union Cabinet
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Explanation
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make laws to alter the name of any state. The process involves the President referring a bill to the state legislature for its views, but the final legislative power rests with Parliament.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. India recognized Israel soon after its creation in 1948 but established full diplomatic relations in 1992.
2. The proposal to rename Kerala as Keralam originated from a resolution passed by the Union Cabinet.
3. The HPV vaccination campaign for girls will use a two-dose regimen of the indigenously developed Cervavac vaccine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the proposal originated from a resolution passed by the Kerala Legislative Assembly in June 2024, not the Union Cabinet. Statement 3 is incorrect as the campaign will use a single-dose regimen of Gardasil vaccine, not a two-dose regimen of Cervavac.
According to the article, approximately how many girls who turn 14 years of age will be eligible for the HPV vaccine every year in India?
- A.50 lakh
- B.1 crore
- C.1.15 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.2.6 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that every year, 1.15 crore girls who turn 14 years of age will be eligible for the HPV vaccine. The figure 2.6 crore refers to the total number of doses to be provided by the GAVI alliance.
What is a primary strategic reason, as indicated in the article, for India's deepening engagement with Israel?
- A.To mediate the Israel-Palestine conflict directly
- B.To secure support for its permanent UN Security Council membership
- C.To strengthen defence cooperation and regional connectivity via the IMEC✓ Correct Answer
- D.To form a military alliance against common adversaries
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Explanation
The article highlights Israel as a key defence partner (evident from Kargil War support) and an important economic partner in the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), which are central to the strategic dimension of the relationship. While India supports Palestinian statehood, direct mediation is not stated as the primary reason.
Under which Ministry does the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) function?
- A.Ministry of Law and Justice
- B.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Culture
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
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Explanation
The CBFC is a statutory body constituted under the Cinematograph Act, 1952, and operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India.
Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Justice Ujjal Bhuyan of the Supreme Court:
1. It is constitutionally permissible for non-state actors to criticize any community through speeches.
2. Fraternity, as mentioned in the Preamble, is a vital instrument for realizing equality in the Indian constitutional context.
3. Once a film is granted a certificate by the CBFC, the producer has no right to exhibit it if there is a potential law and order situation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the judgment clearly states vilification by non-state actors is constitutionally impermissible. Statement 2 is correct as per Justice Bhuyan's observation that fraternity transcends societal disparities. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Court held that screening cannot be prohibited merely on law and order grounds; it is the state's duty to maintain order.
The Supreme Court bench comprising Justices B V Nagarathna and Ujjal Bhuyan disposed of the petition related to the film 'Ghooskhor Pandit' on which date?
- A.February 19, 2025
- B.February 19, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.February 25, 2026
- D.March 1, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that on February 19, 2026, the bench disposed of the petition after accepting an undertaking to change the film's title.
What is the primary constitutional rationale cited by Justice Bhuyan for prohibiting the vilification of communities?
- A.To prevent defamation lawsuits against the state.
- B.To uphold the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- C.To promote fraternity and assure the dignity of the individual as per the Preamble.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To implement the Fundamental Duties listed under Article 51A.
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Explanation
Justice Bhuyan's order directly links the prohibition of vilification to the constitutional objective of promoting fraternity and assuring individual dignity, which is a solemn objective mentioned in the Preamble. While Fundamental Duties support this, the primary rationale provided is the Preamble's fraternity.
Which US government department is responsible for enforcing export controls, as mentioned in the context of the Nvidia chip sale?
- A.Department of Defense
- B.Department of State
- C.Department of Commerce✓ Correct Answer
- D.Department of the Treasury
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions a 'US commerce official' and the 'commerce department' in the context of export enforcement regarding the Nvidia H200 chip. The Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) under the Department of Commerce administers US export control regulations.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on Nvidia chip exports to China:
1. The US government has approved the sale of Nvidia's H200 AI chips to China under a deal that gives it a 25% revenue share.
2. Nvidia's most advanced Blackwell and Rubin series chips are included in the same agreement as the H200 chip.
3. China is focusing on developing its domestic semiconductor industry to compete with foreign companies like Nvidia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states that while a deal exists giving the US a 25% revenue share, 'none have been sold' and conditions have made shipments difficult to approve; approval is not guaranteed. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article clearly states the Blackwell and Rubin series 'remain banned... and were not included in the H200 agreement.' Statement 3 is correct, as mentioned in the article: 'Beijing is ramping up domestic chip development...'
According to the news article, what percentage of sales revenue is the US government entitled to from the Nvidia H200 chip deal with China?
- A.15%
- B.20%
- C.25%✓ Correct Answer
- D.30%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The H200 deal, under which the US government gets a 25 percent cut of sales, was confirmed by the commerce department in January.' The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary reason cited in the article for the US restricting the sale of advanced AI chips like Nvidia's H200 to China?
- A.To protect US intellectual property from theft
- B.To give US companies a competitive advantage in the global market
- C.Over national security concerns regarding China's military✓ Correct Answer
- D.To encourage China to increase its purchase of other US goods
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Explanation
The article directly links the restrictions to 'national security concerns' and notes that 'some lawmakers have warned [easing restrictions] could help the Chinese military.' While other options may be secondary effects, the core stated reason in the text is national security.
Under which flagship health scheme are Ayushman Arogya Mandirs operational?
- A.National Health Mission
- B.Ayushman Bharat✓ Correct Answer
- C.Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana
- D.National Urban Health Mission
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Explanation
Ayushman Arogya Mandirs are the transformed and upgraded Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs), which form the primary healthcare pillar of the Ayushman Bharat scheme. The article mentions the screening drive was conducted through Ayushman Arogya Mandirs.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on hypertension in India:
1. According to the article, nearly one in three adults in India is affected by hypertension.
2. The Maharashtra screening campaign found that the number of diabetes cases requiring treatment was higher than the number of hypertension cases requiring treatment.
3. The survey by Narmada Kidney Foundation found a higher prevalence of hypertension in rural areas compared to urban areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'nearly one in three adults affected'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article says 62,693 required treatment for hypertension, while 36,327 were under treatment for diabetes (hypertension cases were higher). Statement 3 is correct; the survey found 39.8% hypertensive in rural areas vs. 38.6% in urban areas.
According to the Maharashtra screening campaign mentioned in the article, how many citizens above 30 years of age were screened between January 1 and February 18?
- A.6.27 lakh
- B.8.50 lakh
- C.9.41 lakh✓ Correct Answer
- D.10.00 lakh
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Explanation
The article explicitly states 'a statewide screening campaign between January 1 and February 18 screened 9.41 lakh citizens above 30 years of age'. The figure 8.50 lakh refers to the total diabetes cases detected, not the number screened.
What is the primary significance of the specialized Renal Denervation Therapy Centre launched as per the article?
- A.To provide free screening for hypertension across Maharashtra
- B.To focus on treating cases of resistant hypertension✓ Correct Answer
- C.To train ASHA workers in hypertension management
- D.To compile data for the Narmada Kidney Foundation survey
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Explanation
The article states 'the therapy centre will focus on resistant hypertension, cases where blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite multiple medicines'. This is its primary purpose. While it may contribute to data, its main function is specialized treatment for a specific subset of patients.
Which statutory body is responsible for identifying and notifying fake universities in India?
- A.All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
- B.University Grants Commission (UGC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.National Medical Commission (NMC)
- D.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
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Explanation
As per the article, the University Grants Commission (UGC) releases notifications identifying fake universities. It is the statutory body established under the UGC Act, 1956, for coordination and maintenance of standards in higher education.
Consider the following statements regarding fake universities in India:
1. The University Grants Commission (UGC) has the executive authority to physically close down fake universities.
2. The proposed Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill 2026 seeks to replace the ₹1,000 fine with a penalty of at least ₹2 crore.
3. As per the UGC's February 2026 notification, Delhi has the highest number of fake universities among all states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states that physical enforcement and closure is a state-level law-and-order issue; the UGC can only identify and notify. Statement 2 is correct as the VBSA Bill 2026 proposes replacing the old ₹1,000 fine. Statement 3 is correct as Delhi leads with 12 fake universities (38% of the total).
According to the UGC's February 2026 notification, what is the total number of fake universities identified across India?
- A.20
- B.24
- C.32✓ Correct Answer
- D.38
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the UGC's February 2026 notification identifies 32 fake universities. This marks a 60% increase from 20 in 2023. The other options are distractors: 20 was the 2023 count, 24 was within the range until 2023, and 38 is not mentioned.
What is a primary reason, as highlighted in the article, for the persistent recurrence of fake universities in India?
- A.Lack of student interest in genuine higher education.
- B.Excessive regulatory power vested with the University Grants Commission.
- C.Regulatory vacuum where UGC can identify but not enforce closure.✓ Correct Answer
- D.High entry barriers for establishing new legitimate universities.
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Explanation
The article identifies the core problem as a 'regulatory vacuum'. The UGC Act, 1956, allows the UGC to identify fake universities but does not grant it executive authority to close them. Criminal prosecution and physical closure depend on state-level police and education departments, leading to enforcement gaps.
Which independent international institute is cited in the article as the source for data on arms transfers between India and Israel?
- A.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- C.Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.World Bank
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that data on India's share of Israel's arms exports comes from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI). SIPRI is a well-known source for global arms trade data.
Consider the following statements regarding India-Israel relations as per the news article:
1. India accounted for over 38% of Israel's arms exports between 2014 and 2024.
2. Bilateral trade between India and Israel has consistently shown a trade surplus for India since 1992.
3. The first visit by an Indian Prime Minister to Israel took place in 2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per SIPRI data mentioned in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; while India has maintained a trade surplus since 2014-15, the article does not state this was the case since 1992, and trade figures show volatility. Statement 3 is correct as PM Modi's 2017 visit was the first by an Indian PM.
According to the article, what was the peak value of India-Israel bilateral trade and in which financial year did it occur?
- A.$6.5 billion in 2023-24
- B.$10.7 billion in 2022-23✓ Correct Answer
- C.$3.6 billion in 2024-25
- D.$200 million in 1992
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Explanation
The article clearly states that bilateral trade 'peaked at over $10.7 billion in 2022-23'. The other options represent trade values from other years mentioned in the article.
What is a significant dimension of the India-Israel partnership highlighted in the article, besides defense and trade?
- A.Collaboration in space exploration missions
- B.Joint development of nuclear energy technology
- C.Migration and mobility of Indian workers and students✓ Correct Answer
- D.Cultural exchange programs in the film industry
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions 'migration and mobility' as another key dimension, detailing the presence of around 32,000 Indian workers and 900 students in Israel. The other options are not mentioned in the provided content.
The judgment discussed the authority of which statutory film certification body?
- A.National Film Development Corporation
- B.Central Board of Film Certification✓ Correct Answer
- C.Film and Television Institute of India
- D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
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Explanation
The judgment repeatedly refers to the 'Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC)' as the expert body whose certification, once given, should not be overridden by threats of violence. The CBFC is the statutory body for film certification in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment discussed:
1. It held that threatening violence to stop a CBFC-certified film is permissible if it prevents a law and order situation.
2. It stated that reasonable restrictions on free speech can be imposed on grounds including 'public order' and 'morality'.
3. It emphasized that constitutional courts must be at the forefront to protect the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The judgment explicitly said using threats to stop a certified film would lead to 'anarchy' and is not permissible; the state must handle law and order. Statement 2 is correct as it lists the grounds from Article 19(2). Statement 3 is correct as the judge wrote that constitutional courts must zealously protect Article 19(1)(a) rights.
The Supreme Court order discussed was pronounced by a Bench on which date in 2026?
- A.February 19, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- B.February 25, 2026
- C.March 1, 2026
- D.January 30, 2026
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Explanation
The article states that Justice Bhuyan's opinion is part of a 'judicial order of February 19' pronounced by a Bench. February 25 is the date the opinion was published, not the order date.
What is the primary constitutional principle the judgment reinforces regarding dissent against creative works?
- A.The state should pre-censor all creative works to avoid offense.
- B.Dissenters have the right to legally ban content they find offensive.
- C.Those who disagree should not watch the work, not suppress its expression.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Courts should proactively regulate speech that might hurt sensibilities.
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Explanation
The judgment directly quotes that 'those who disagree have a simple expedient; of not watching a film...'. This reinforces the principle that tolerance and choice, not suppression, are the correct responses in a democracy, protecting the creator's freedom under Article 19(1)(a).
The 'One Stop Centre (OSC)' scheme, which offers integrated support to victims as mentioned in the news, is implemented under the administrative control of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Women and Child Development✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- D.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
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Explanation
The One Stop Centre (OSC) scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD) under the Nirbhaya Fund framework. It aims to provide integrated support services to women affected by violence.
Consider the following statements regarding Andhra Pradesh's initiatives for women and child safety as per the news article:
1. 'Operation TRACE' was launched on August 1, 2025, to streamline the process of tracking missing persons.
2. The Women and Child Safety Wing (WCSW) is headed by an officer of the rank of Director General of Police (DGP).
3. Focused trial monitoring since June 1, 2024, has led to the conviction in more than 500 cases related to crimes against women and children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the WCSW is headed by an officer of Inspector General of Police (IGP) rank, not DGP. Statement 3 is incorrect; the convictions are 497, which is less than 500. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
According to the information provided by the Andhra Pradesh Home Minister, how many 'Shakti' teams have been deployed across hotspots in the state to curb harassment and enhance vigilance?
- A.100
- B.164✓ Correct Answer
- C.200
- D.26
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 164 Shakti teams have been deployed across hotspots. Option D (26) is a distractor, representing the number of One-Stop Centres, not Shakti teams.
What is the primary objective of the 'Operation TRACE' initiative launched by Andhra Pradesh, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To provide immediate financial assistance to the families of missing persons.
- B.To streamline case registration, investigation, and follow-up for missing women and children.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To establish new fast-track courts exclusively for crimes against women.
- D.To conduct state-wide awareness campaigns on women's legal rights.
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Explanation
As defined in the article, Operation TRACE (Track, Reconnect, Assist, Counsel and Empower) aims to streamline the procedural aspects of handling missing persons cases through dedicated teams at district and state levels. The other options, while potentially beneficial, are not the core objective mentioned for this specific operation.
The International Energy Agency (IEA), discussed in the context of India's membership bid, is headquartered in which city?
- A.Geneva
- B.Paris✓ Correct Answer
- C.Vienna
- D.Brussels
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the International Energy Agency (IEA) is a 'Paris-based agency'. This is a key static fact about the institution's location.
Consider the following statements regarding the issues discussed in the article:
1. The Strait of Hormuz handles approximately one-fifth of global liquid petroleum consumption.
2. Full membership of the International Energy Agency (IEA) is open only to countries that are members of the OECD.
3. India became an associate member of the IEA in the year 2020.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'The Strait of Hormuz handles approximately one-fifth of global liquid petroleum consumption...'. Statement 2 is correct as the article notes Colombia became a full member after joining OECD, indicating this prerequisite. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article states India became an associate member in 2017, not 2020.
According to the article, what proportion of India's crude oil imports transits through the Strait of Hormuz?
- A.Over 30%
- B.Over 40%✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over 50%
- D.Over 60%
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: 'over 40% of crude oil imported by India transits the Strait of Hormuz.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is identified as a primary strategic implication for India of escalating US-Iran tensions, as per the article's analysis?
- A.The need to increase domestic coal production immediately.
- B.A complex foreign policy challenge in balancing relations with the US and Iran.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An opportunity to replace the US as Iran's primary diplomatic partner.
- D.The necessity to immediately halt all oil imports from the Gulf region.
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Explanation
The article's analysis frames the core strategic implication for India as the diplomatic challenge of safeguarding its energy security and national interests while navigating relations with both the US and Iran, a point highlighted in the 'Points to Ponder' section.
Which ministry is responsible for implementing the proposed Direct Benefit Transfer for fertiliser subsidy as mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The news article specifically mentions Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan making the proposal for DBT for fertiliser subsidy. As the minister heading the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, this ministry would be responsible for implementing agricultural subsidy reforms.
Consider the following statements regarding the fertiliser subsidy mentioned in the news:
1. The total fertiliser subsidy allocation for FY 2026-27 is ₹1.70 lakh crore.
2. The urea subsidy component is ₹54,000 crore while nutrient-based subsidy is ₹1.16 lakh crore.
3. India's total fertiliser consumption in 2024-25 stood at 329 lakh tonnes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states ₹1.70 lakh crore allocation for fertiliser subsidy in FY 2026-27. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions urea subsidy is ₹1.16 lakh crore and nutrient-based subsidy is ₹54,000 crore (not the other way around). Statement 3 is correct as the article states India's total fertiliser consumption stood at 329 lakh tonnes in 2024-25.
According to the news article, how many farmers' IDs have been generated so far that can be used for Direct Benefit Transfer of fertiliser subsidy?
- A.5.5 crore
- B.7.2 crore
- C.8.5 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.10.1 crore
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Explanation
The article specifically states that '8.50 crore farmers' IDs have been generated' according to Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan. These IDs contain land ownership details and can be used for DBT to farmers' bank accounts.
What is the primary objective behind the proposal to shift fertiliser subsidy to Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) as mentioned in the news?
- A.To increase fertiliser production capacity in India
- B.To reduce fiscal deficit by cutting subsidy expenditure
- C.To prevent diversion of subsidised fertilisers and ensure farmers receive benefits✓ Correct Answer
- D.To promote organic farming by reducing chemical fertiliser use
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Explanation
The article clearly states the Minister's concern that 'urea meant for farmers... ends up elsewhere—in industries and other places' and that DBT would ensure subsidies reach farmers directly. While other options might be secondary effects, the primary objective stated is to address diversion and ensure proper delivery to farmers.
Which of the following is the national legislature of Israel, which Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed in February 2026?
- A.The Majlis
- B.The Knesset✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Bundestag
- D.The National Assembly
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Explanation
The Knesset is the unicameral parliament of Israel. Prime Minister Modi's address to it marked the first time an Indian Prime Minister did so, as mentioned in the article. The Majlis is Iran's parliament, the Bundestag is Germany's, and the National Assembly is a common name for legislatures in many countries.
Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister Narendra Modi's address to the Israeli Knesset:
1. He expressed India's firm support for the Gaza peace initiative endorsed by the United Nations Security Council.
2. He linked the October 7, 2023 Hamas attack on Israel with the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks.
3. He became the second Indian Prime Minister to address the Knesset, following Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article clearly states Modi backed the UNSC-endorsed Gaza peace initiative. Statement 2 is correct as he linked the October 7 attack with the 26/11 Mumbai attacks. Statement 3 is incorrect because Modi was the first Indian Prime Minister to address the Knesset, not the second.
In February 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the Israeli Knesset for the first time. What was the duration of his speech as mentioned in the article?
- A.25 minutes
- B.31 minutes✓ Correct Answer
- C.45 minutes
- D.One hour
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that Prime Minister Modi delivered a '31-minute speech' which was punctuated by applause and standing ovation. This is a specific factual detail from the news report.
According to Prime Minister Modi's address, what is the primary pathway India supports for achieving peace in the Gaza region?
- A.Unilateral military action by Israel
- B.The Gaza peace initiative endorsed by the UN Security Council✓ Correct Answer
- C.Direct bilateral talks between Israel and Hamas without mediators
- D.A regional conference led by the United States
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Explanation
In his speech, Modi stated, 'The Gaza peace initiative that was endorsed by the UN Security Council offers a pathway. India has expressed its firm support for the initiative.' This clearly identifies the UNSC-backed initiative as the supported pathway, as opposed to unilateral action or other proposed methods.
The Supreme Court judgment discussed the concept of 'Fraternity'. In which part of the Indian Constitution is 'Fraternity' explicitly mentioned?
- A.In the Fundamental Rights (Part III)
- B.In the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
- C.In the Preamble✓ Correct Answer
- D.In the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A)
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Explanation
The term 'Fraternity' is explicitly mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution, which seeks to promote fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. It is a guiding philosophy, not a legally enforceable right or duty.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment discussed in the news:
1. The Court held that targeting a community based on religion or caste is constitutionally impermissible only for state actors, not private individuals.
2. The judgment cited the case of Shreya Singhal v. Union of India in the context of freedom of speech and expression.
3. Justice Ujjal Bhuyan, in a separate opinion, described Fraternity as a 'constitutional dharma'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The judgment explicitly states the prohibition applies to "whosoever he or she may be," including non-state actors. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions Shreya Singhal v. Union of India was referenced. Statement 3 is correct as Justice Bhuyan's opinion termed fraternity a 'constitutional dharma'.
The Supreme Court judgment, as per the news, was delivered by a bench consisting of which two justices?
- A.Justice D.Y. Chandrachud and Justice Surya Kant
- B.Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul and Justice Sanjiv Khanna
- C.Justice B.V. Nagarathna and Justice Ujjal Bhuyan✓ Correct Answer
- D.Justice K.M. Joseph and Justice Hima Kohli
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Explanation
The article clearly states the bench comprised Justice BV Nagarathna and Justice Ujjal Bhuyan. This is a direct factual recall from the news content, testing attention to key institutional details.
According to the Supreme Court's observations in the judgment, what is the primary constitutional value that limits the freedom of speech and expression when it involves targeting a community?
- A.The principle of Judicial Review
- B.The doctrine of Basic Structure
- C.The objective of Fraternity mentioned in the Preamble✓ Correct Answer
- D.The concept of Federalism
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Explanation
The judgment extensively elaborates on 'Fraternity' from the Preamble as a solemn objective and a 'constitutional dharma'. It uses this principle to establish a boundary for free speech, stating that speech which vilifies a community based on identity violates the Constitution's fraternal goal. The other options, while important, are not the central limiting value highlighted in this specific ruling.
Which intergovernmental organization, mentioned in the article, is India set to chair in 2026?
- A.G20
- B.United Nations Security Council
- C.BRICS✓ Correct Answer
- D.Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the visit unfolds as India assumes the BRICS chairship and plans to hold the 18th BRICS summit. G20 was hosted earlier, and UNSC/SCO are not mentioned.
Consider the following statements regarding India-Israel relations as per the article:
1. India has been Israel's largest defence export market, accounting for 34% of its total sales between 2020 and 2024.
2. The total value of defence technology transfers from Israel to India over the last decade is approximately $2.9 billion.
3. Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit in February 2026 marks the first-ever official visit by an Indian Prime Minister to Israel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states India is Israel's first market for defence exports, accounting for 34% of total sales (2020-2024). Statement 2 is correct as it mentions defence ties worth $2.9 billion over the last decade. Statement 3 is incorrect because Modi's first visit was in July 2017; the 2026 visit is the second official visit.
According to the article, what is the estimated size of the Indian diaspora in the Middle East region?
- A.5 million
- B.7 million
- C.9 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.11 million
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that India cannot afford regional fragmentation given the welfare of its 9 million-strong diaspora in the region. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a primary strategic reason, as per the article, for India's continued engagement with Israel despite regional complexities?
- A.To secure voting support in the United Nations.
- B.To access advanced defence technology and equipment.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To mediate the Israel-Palestine peace process.
- D.To reduce dependence on Gulf energy imports.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that defence ties remain the backbone of the relationship, with Israel being a key supplier of advanced military technology like drones and air defence systems, crucial for India's security doctrine. While energy and diplomacy are concerns, the core driver highlighted is defence technology.
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Finance Commission established?
- A.Article 265
- B.Article 280✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 360
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States.
Consider the following statements regarding the critique by former RBI Governor C. Rangarajan on the 16th Finance Commission report:
1. He argued that the steep increase in cesses and surcharges is not in the spirit of the Constitution.
2. He praised the Commission for taking a pragmatic short cut by dropping revenue deficit grants.
3. He emphasized that normatively determined revenue gap grants are essential for India's federal structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article where Rangarajan states the rise in cesses/surcharges 'is not in the spirit of the Constitution'. Statement 2 is incorrect; he criticized the dropping of grants as a 'short cut', not praised it. Statement 3 is correct as he said such grants 'have a place in federal structure'.
Which Finance Commission's report was critiqued by former RBI Governor C. Rangarajan in the news article?
- A.14th Finance Commission
- B.15th Finance Commission
- C.16th Finance Commission✓ Correct Answer
- D.17th Finance Commission
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Explanation
The article's title and content explicitly mention that the critique is directed at the report of the 16th Finance Commission. The 15th FC was the previous commission, and the 17th FC is yet to be constituted.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised by C. Rangarajan regarding cesses and surcharges levied by the Centre?
- A.They increase the tax burden on the common man disproportionately.
- B.They are not part of the divisible pool of taxes, reducing states' share of central revenues.✓ Correct Answer
- C.They require approval from the GST Council, causing delays in implementation.
- D.They are levied only on direct taxes, leaving indirect taxes untouched.
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Explanation
The core concern, as implied by Rangarajan's statement and rooted in Article 270, is that cesses and surcharges are retained entirely by the Central Government and not shared with states. This reduces the size of the divisible pool, thereby diminishing the financial resources available for devolution to states.
The news mentions Iran's Foreign Minister. Which ministry in India is the counterpart responsible for handling such international negotiations?
- A.Ministry of External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs
- C.Ministry of Defence
- D.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
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Explanation
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is the nodal ministry in India responsible for foreign policy and international negotiations, analogous to Iran's Foreign Ministry mentioned in the article.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Iran's Foreign Minister stated that a nuclear deal was 'within reach' ahead of talks with the United States.
2. The upcoming talks in Geneva will be the fifth round of negotiations between the two sides.
3. Iran has stated it will under no circumstances ever develop a nuclear weapon but insists on its right to peaceful nuclear technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the upcoming talks are the 'third round', not the fifth. Statement 3 is verbatim from the article. Hence, both 1 and 3 are correct.
According to the article, how long was the war triggered by Israel's attack on Iran last year?
- A.7-day war
- B.10-day war
- C.12-day war✓ Correct Answer
- D.15-day war
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Israel's attack 'triggered a 12-day war.' The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary objective Iran emphasizes in its diplomatic stance, as per the Foreign Minister's statement?
- A.To develop nuclear weapons as a deterrent
- B.To achieve mutual interests through a diplomatic agreement✓ Correct Answer
- C.To escalate military conflict with the United States
- D.To unilaterally withdraw from all nuclear treaties
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Explanation
The Foreign Minister's statement quotes the goal as 'an unprecedented agreement that addresses mutual concerns and achieves mutual interests.' The other options contradict the article's emphasis on diplomacy and denial of weapon ambitions.
Which regulatory body has issued the recommendations for the upcoming spectrum auction as per the news?
- A.Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
- B.Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) made these recommendations on spectrum auction modalities. TRAI is the statutory regulator for the telecom sector, while DoT is the implementing ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent TRAI recommendations on spectrum auction:
1. It proposes auctioning spectrum in the upper 6 GHz band (6425-7125 MHz) immediately.
2. It recommends a uniform spectrum cap of 35% across all frequency bands, including low, mid, and high bands.
3. It suggests increasing the net worth criteria for new entrants to ₹150 crore per licensed service area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. TRAI said the upper 6 GHz band should NOT be auctioned now and the issue should be re-examined after WRC-27. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; TRAI proposed halving the net worth to ₹50 crore, not increasing it.
According to industry calculations mentioned in the article, what is the approximate potential revenue from the sale of all available spectrum (excluding 600 MHz) at the reserve price?
- A.₹65,000 crore
- B.₹71,500 crore
- C.₹81,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹95,000 crore
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Explanation
The article states: "as per industry calculations, if all the spectrum on offer across bands (excluding 600 MHz) is sold, the radiowaves could fetch nearly ₹81,000 crore at the reserve price." The other figures are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is the primary objective of the novel 'coverage-for-discount' scheme proposed by TRAI in the news?
- A.To increase government revenue from spectrum auctions.
- B.To allow telecom operators to defer their spectrum payment obligations.
- C.To incentivize the expansion of network coverage into underserved areas.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To reduce the overall reserve price of spectrum across all bands.
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Explanation
The scheme allows successful bidders to offset up to 10% of their spectrum auction costs by deploying new 4G/5G base stations in government-identified 'coverage holes' or 'dead zones' within one year. Its direct objective is to bridge the digital divide, not primarily to boost revenue or reduce prices.
MASHAV, mentioned in the context of water management collaborations with Indian states, is the international development agency of which country?
- A.United States
- B.Israel✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Arab Emirates
- D.Germany
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Explanation
The article states that MASHAV is Israel's Agency for International Development Cooperation under Israel's Ministry of Foreign Affairs. It signed agreements with Haryana and Rajasthan on water management.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel strategic partnership:
1. India has been Israel's largest defence customer for several years, accounting for about 34% of its arms exports between 2020 and 2024.
2. The Barak-8 air and missile defence system is an Israeli system imported by India without any co-development.
3. The 'India-Israel Vision on Defence Cooperation' was announced during the Israeli Defence Minister's visit to New Delhi in June 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per SIPRI data cited in the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states the Barak-8 system was 'co-developed by India and Israel'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, what was the value of India-Israel bilateral trade in the financial year 2024-2025?
- A.$2.5 billion
- B.$3.25 billion
- C.$3.75 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$4.1 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'India is Israel’s second-largest trading partner in Asia, with bilateral trade reaching $3.75 billion in FY2024-2025.' The other figures are plausible distractors but not mentioned.
What is a primary strategic significance of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) as discussed in the context of the Prime Minister's visit?
- A.To replace all existing trade routes between Asia and Europe
- B.To provide a shorter and safer alternative to the Suez Canal route, vulnerable to regional conflicts✓ Correct Answer
- C.To facilitate the export of Indian agricultural products exclusively to Europe
- D.To establish a military alliance between the participating nations
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Explanation
The article explains that with the Suez Canal route vulnerable to disruptions, 'IMEC could provide an alternative, secure corridor to Europe.' It is a trade and connectivity project, not a military alliance or an exclusive agricultural route.
As per the Indian Constitution, the State Election Commission is established under which articles?
- A.Articles 324 and 325
- B.Articles 243K and 243ZA✓ Correct Answer
- C.Articles 368 and 369
- D.Articles 14 and 15
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Explanation
Article 243K deals with the State Election Commission for Panchayats, and Article 243ZA deals with it for Municipalities. Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India, making it a common distractor.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) and State Election Commissioners (SECs) adopted a declaration to synergise electoral laws and processes.
2. According to the declaration, the ECI will now directly control the preparation of electoral rolls for Panchayat elections.
3. The conference where this declaration was adopted was held after a gap of 27 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the declaration talks about synergising and working together, not ECI taking direct control, which would violate the constitutional autonomy of SECs. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned.
After how many years did the Election Commission of India host a conference with State Election Commissioners, as per the recent news?
- A.15 years
- B.20 years
- C.27 years✓ Correct Answer
- D.30 years
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The ECI held the conference of SECs after a gap of 27 years." The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary objective of the declaration adopted by the ECI and SECs, as mentioned in the news?
- A.To merge the State Election Commissions into the Election Commission of India.
- B.To amend the Constitution to make the ECI supreme over all elections.
- C.To work together to synergise electoral laws and processes for different tiers of government.✓ Correct Answer
- D.To introduce a common political party symbol for all elections.
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Explanation
The declaration's core, as quoted, is that "ECI and SECs will work together to synergise the laws relating to the elections..." Options A and B suggest structural merger or constitutional change, which is not stated. Option D is not mentioned at all.
Which ministry is responsible for launching the nationwide free HPV vaccination programme mentioned in the news?
- A.Ministry of Women and Child Development
- B.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of Education
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Explanation
The article states the Union Health Ministry is launching the programme. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for public health initiatives, including vaccination drives.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The HPV vaccination programme will use a quadrivalent vaccine called Gardasil.
2. TRAI has proposed a uniform 25% spectrum cap for telecom operators.
3. The Union Cabinet approved renaming Kerala to 'Keralam' under Article 4 of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because TRAI proposed a 35% cap, not 25%. Statement 3 is incorrect as the process is under Article 3, not Article 4.
According to the news, what is the potential value of the telecom spectrum auction at the reserve price, as per industry calculations?
- A.₹65,000 crore
- B.₹71,500 crore
- C.₹81,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹92,000 crore
▶ Show Explanation▼ Hide Explanation
Explanation
The article states that if all spectrum on offer (excluding 600 MHz) is sold, it could fetch nearly ₹81,000 crore at the reserve price. The other options are close distractors.
What is the primary objective of TRAI's recommendation for a uniform 35% spectrum cap, as mentioned in the news?
- A.To maximize government revenue from the auction
- B.To safeguard competition in the telecom sector✓ Correct Answer
- C.To exclusively benefit existing large telecom operators
- D.To reduce the rollout time for 5G services
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Explanation
The article explicitly states TRAI proposed the cap 'to safeguard competition in the telecom sector'. While revenue and 5G are related outcomes, the stated primary objective is competition.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India (ECI) established?
- A.Article 324✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 352
- C.Article 368
- D.Article 14
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India, the constitutional body responsible for conducting elections mentioned in the article, is established under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution. This is a fundamental static GK fact for Polity.
Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) process discussed in the news:
1. It is a process conducted by the Election Commission of India for cleaning electoral rolls.
2. The process led to higher voter deletions in Bihar compared to Tamil Nadu and Gujarat.
3. The Supreme Court has sought assistance from judicial officers of neighboring states for legal verification in West Bengal due to implementation issues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the SIR is indeed an ECI process for electoral roll revision. Statement 2 is incorrect; deletions were higher in Tamil Nadu (11.5%) and Gujarat (13.4%) than in Bihar (~6%). Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article regarding the situation in West Bengal.
According to the article, what was the approximate percentage of net voter deletions from the electoral rolls in Gujarat during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) process?
- A.6%
- B.11.5%
- C.11.8%
- D.13.4%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the net number of voters removed in Gujarat was 13.4%. The other figures correspond to Tamil Nadu (11.5%), Chhattisgarh (11.8%), and Bihar (6%).
What is identified as a key structural defect of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) process as per the news analysis?
- A.It is conducted too frequently, causing voter fatigue.
- B.It depends on an enumeration that shifts the burden onto electors to prove their eligibility.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It relies exclusively on data from the latest Census, which is always accurate.
- D.It is implemented only in states ruled by a particular political party.
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Explanation
The article criticizes the SIR process for shifting the burden of proof onto voters instead of adopting a more robust household-by-household count conducted by the authorities. This is highlighted as a structural defect disadvantaging migrants and others.
Which constitutional body issued the 2018 guidelines to prevent and prosecute cow vigilantism?
- A.The Parliament of India
- B.The Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.The National Human Rights Commission
- D.The Law Commission of India
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the guidelines were issued by the Supreme Court of India in a 2018 judgment. The Supreme Court, under Article 142, has the power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's stance on cow vigilantism:
1. In 2018, a Supreme Court bench observed that lynching 'must be curbed and crippled' and issued guidelines to the Centre and States.
2. In 2026, the Supreme Court affirmed its 2018 guidelines as fully enforceable and initiated contempt proceedings against non-compliant States.
3. The 2026 observation by the CJI favored taking up each crime of vigilantism on its singular facts rather than general monitoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the 2018 judgment. Statement 2 is incorrect; the 2026 observation was a retreat, not an affirmation, and the Court did not initiate contempt proceedings. Statement 3 is correct as the CJI in 2026 called the guidelines 'unmanageable' and favored a case-by-case approach.
According to the article, in which year did the Supreme Court bench headed by then CJI Dipak Mishra issue guidelines against cow vigilantism?
- A.2016
- B.2017
- C.2018✓ Correct Answer
- D.2019
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the guidelines were issued in a 2018 judgment by a bench headed by then Chief Justice of India, Dipak Mishra. This is a key factual date for Prelims.
What was the primary implication of the Supreme Court's 2026 observation that its 2018 guidelines on cow vigilantism were 'unmanageable'?
- A.It strengthened the central government's authority to directly prosecute vigilantes.
- B.It signaled the Court's retreat from systemic oversight, shifting the burden to individual litigation.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It led to the immediate enactment of a new anti-lynching law by Parliament.
- D.It empowered State High Courts to issue nationwide directives on the matter.
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Explanation
The article states that the CJI favored an approach of taking up each crime on its merits and that affected individuals should seek legal recourse. This indicates a withdrawal from the Court's earlier role as a watchdog, placing the onus on victims to file individual cases.
Which international organization's dispute settlement body has established a panel to hear China's complaint against India's PLI schemes?
- A.United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
- B.World Trade Organization (WTO)✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- D.World Bank
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the WTO dispute settlement body announced the setting up of the panel. The WTO is the primary global body for resolving trade disputes between its member nations.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. China initiated WTO dispute proceedings against India's PLI schemes for automobiles and renewable energy sectors.
2. India's trade deficit with China narrowed to $99.2 billion during the fiscal year 2024-25.
3. The first step in the WTO dispute settlement process, as mentioned in the article, is the establishment of a panel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the trade deficit widened to $99.2 billion, it did not narrow. Statement 3 is incorrect: the first step is consultations, not panel establishment, as mentioned in the article ('Seeking consultation is the first step...').
According to the article, what was the value of India's imports from China in the fiscal year 2024-25?
- A.$101.73 billion
- B.$113.45 billion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$14.25 billion
- D.$16.66 billion
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Explanation
The article states: 'The imports, however, rose by 11.52% in 2024-25 to $113.45 billion against $101.73 billion in 2023-24.' $101.73bn is the previous year's import, $14.25bn is India's export to China, and $16.66bn is India's export to China in the previous year.
What is the primary objective of China's request for a WTO panel establishment against India's PLI schemes, as inferred from the article?
- A.To promote greater bilateral trade cooperation between India and China.
- B.To challenge India's support measures as discriminatory under global trade rules.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To seek compensation for losses incurred due to India's export restrictions.
- D.To renegotiate the terms of the existing bilateral trade agreement.
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Explanation
The article mentions China alleged that PLI schemes 'violate global trade rules by discriminating against Chinese goods and exporters.' The core of the dispute is the alleged non-compliance of India's subsidies with WTO norms, not cooperation, compensation, or renegotiation of a separate agreement.
Which Ministry is responsible for implementing the National Critical Mineral Mission in India?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Mines✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
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Explanation
The article states that the Union Cabinet approved the National Critical Mineral Mission and mentions the Ministry of Mines in the context of auctioning critical mineral blocks. Mining and mineral development fall under the purview of the Ministry of Mines.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Brazil Critical Minerals MoU:
1. It is a legally binding treaty covering the entire value chain from exploration to recycling.
2. The MoU was signed during the state visit of Brazilian President Lula da Silva to India in February 2026.
3. One of its objectives is to strengthen India's bargaining power by providing an alternative source for critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article explicitly mentions the MoU is reported to be non-binding. Statement 2 is correct as the MoU was signed during President Lula's state visit on February 21, 2026. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the agreement will increase India's bargaining power by providing an alternative sourcing option.
According to the article, for which period has the National Critical Mineral Mission been approved to run?
- A.2023-24 to 2027-28
- B.2024-25 to 2029-30
- C.2024-25 to 2030-31✓ Correct Answer
- D.2025-26 to 2031-32
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the National Critical Mineral Mission is meant to run from 2024-25 to 2030-31. This is a specific data point useful for Prelims.
What is a primary strategic benefit for India from the MoU with Brazil on critical minerals, as per the analysis in the article?
- A.Gaining access to advanced Brazilian mining technology
- B.Reducing the cost of domestic mineral exploration
- C.Enhancing bargaining power with other mineral suppliers✓ Correct Answer
- D.Securing a preferential voting right in the UN Security Council
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Explanation
The article explains that having Brazil as a potential source prevents other suppliers from imposing exorbitant terms, as India can now credibly walk away. This enhances India's bargaining power in the global market for critical minerals.
The protest march in Maharashtra demanded proper implementation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006. Under which Union Ministry does the primary responsibility for this Act lie?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Tribal Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
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Explanation
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), is administered by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. This ministry is the nodal agency for policy, planning, and coordination of programs for the development of Scheduled Tribes.
Consider the following statements regarding the long march reported from Maharashtra:
1. The protest was organised solely by tribal groups demanding land ownership rights.
2. One of the key demands was a pension of ₹5000 per month for construction labourers above 60 years of age.
3. The protestors also raised concerns about the supply of potable water and the Nashik-Pune high-speed railway project.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The protest was organised by the All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) and Centre of Indian Trade Unions (CITU), and included a diverse group like farmers, government school employees, and construction labourers, not solely tribal groups. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's list of demands. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the protestors raised concerns about the Nashik-Pune high-speed railway and potable water supply.
According to the news article, what was the approximate distance the protestors intended to walk during the long march in Ahilyanagar?
- A.100 kilometres
- B.120 kilometres
- C.150 kilometres✓ Correct Answer
- D.180 kilometres
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "The protestors intend to walk almost 150 kilometres to reach the Ahilyanagar Collectorate." The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the provided content.
What is a primary reason, as indicated in the article, for the protestors launching a fresh agitation after calling off a previous one?
- A.A change in the state government's political leadership.
- B.The government failed to implement promised measures to resolve their issues.✓ Correct Answer
- C.A new court order nullified their previous agreements.
- D.An increase in police action against similar protests in other states.
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Explanation
The article quotes protest leader Ajit Navale stating they were forced to call for a fresh agitation because the government had given them a word that their demands would be fulfilled after the previous protest was called off, but no developments had taken place since then, for almost three years. This highlights the issue of unfulfilled government promises.
The Chhattisgarh Budget 2026-27 announced an allocation for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). Under which ministry at the Union level are PVTG development schemes primarily coordinated?
- A.Ministry of Tribal Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry at the central level for the overall policy, planning, and coordination of programmes for the development of Scheduled Tribes, including Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh Budget 2026-27:
1. The budget proposes to develop modern education cities in the Bastar region with an allocation of ₹100 crore.
2. The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) for 2026-27 is estimated to be ₹6,31,920 crore.
3. A new scheme named after Rani Durgavati will provide a financial grant to girls upon turning 21 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the GSDP for 2026-27 is ₹7,09,553 crore, while ₹6,31,920 crore was the previous year's figure. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Rani Durgavati Scheme provides ₹1.50 lakh when girls attain 18 years, not 21.
According to the Chhattisgarh Budget 2026-27, what is the estimated cost for constructing the Matnar and Deurgaon barrages on the Indravati River?
- A.₹1,024 crore
- B.₹2,024 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹3,024 crore
- D.₹4,024 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Matnar and Deurgaon barrages on the Indravati River are estimated to cost ₹2,024 crore. This initiative is expected to provide irrigation to an additional 32,000 hectares in the Bastar region.
What is the primary strategic objective behind developing 'modern education cities' in the Bastar region as per the Chhattisgarh Budget?
- A.To increase state revenue through higher education fees
- B.To provide a safe, integrated educational environment and employment-oriented skills to youth in a former conflict zone✓ Correct Answer
- C.To relocate tribal populations from remote villages to urban centers
- D.To serve as a model for elite private educational institutions
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Explanation
The article explains that the education cities aim to provide an integrated system from primary to higher secondary, with hostels for remote students and IT/skill development programs. This is intended to open job avenues and accelerate economic activity, directly addressing the socio-economic roots of instability in the region.
Which global public-private partnership is providing India with 2.6 crore doses of the HPV vaccine for the initial campaign?
- A.World Health Organization (WHO)
- B.GAVI, the Vaccine Alliance✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
- D.The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that GAVI (the Vaccine Alliance) will provide India with 2.6 crore doses for the initial phase of the HPV vaccination drive. WHO sets guidelines but is not the procurement agency in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccination drive in India:
1. The nationwide campaign offers a single-dose HPV vaccine to all 14-year-old girls.
2. The campaign will use the indigenously developed Cervavac vaccine from the beginning.
3. The U-Win platform, similar to Co-Win, will be used for beneficiary registration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions a single-dose campaign for 14-year-old girls. Statement 2 is incorrect; the campaign will initially use Gardasil and switch to Cervavac later after approvals. Statement 3 is correct as the article states the U-Win platform will be used for booking slots.
According to the article, approximately how many girls turn 14 years old in India every year, making them eligible for the HPV vaccine under the new campaign?
- A.0.75 crore
- B.1.15 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.1.5 crore
- D.2.6 crore
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Explanation
The article states, 'An estimated 1.15 crore girls turn 14 every year in India.' The figure 2.6 crore is the number of vaccine doses supplied by GAVI, not the annual eligible cohort.
What is a key strategic reason for targeting 14-year-old girls for the HPV vaccination, as mentioned in the article?
- A.It is the legal age of consent for medical procedures.
- B.To ensure vaccination before the onset of sexual activity for better immunity.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To align with the school vaccination schedule for Class 9 students.
- D.It is the age recommended by the indigenous vaccine manufacturer.
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Explanation
The article explains that 'HPV immunisation in the teenage years — when girls are going through puberty but are not sexually active — results in better and longer immunity.' This is the primary public health rationale for the chosen age group.
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), which delivered the ruling on Child Care Leave, is established under which Article of the Constitution of India?
- A.Article 323-A✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 324
- C.Article 280
- D.Article 338
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Explanation
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) is established under Article 323-A of the Constitution, which empowers Parliament to provide for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) ruling on Child Care Leave:
1. The tribunal granted Child Care Leave (CCL) to a mother for her son's Class 12 board exams.
2. The ruling held that CCL under Rule 43-C is a statutory welfare provision rooted in the rights of the child under Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. The CAT accepted the employer's argument of administrative exigency and manpower shortage as a valid ground to restrict the grant of CCL.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the leave was granted for Class 10 CBSE exams, not Class 12. Statement 2 is correct as the CAT explicitly linked CCL to DPSPs for child welfare. Statement 3 is incorrect as the tribunal rejected the employer's argument, calling it 'wholly untenable'.
According to the Central Administrative Tribunal ruling, for approximately how many days was Child Care Leave (CCL) granted to the mother for her son's CBSE Class 10 board exams?
- A.18 days
- B.45 days
- C.~104 days✓ Correct Answer
- D.6 months
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Explanation
The CAT granted CCL from February 6 to May 20, 2026, which is approximately 104 days. The employer had granted only 18 days (Feb 16 to Mar 7). The article mentions a 'prolonged period of 6 months' was requested but denied, making option D a close distractor.
What is the primary legal significance of the Central Administrative Tribunal's ruling on Child Care Leave (CCL)?
- A.It made CCL applicable to private sector employees.
- B.It established that CCL is a discretionary privilege of the employer.
- C.It reinforced that CCL is a child's right under DPSPs, overriding routine administrative exigencies.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It mandated that CCL can only be availed for a child's sickness, not education.
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Explanation
The core ruling is that CCL under Rule 43-C is a welfare-oriented statutory provision for the child's rights (education, sickness) as envisioned in Directive Principles of State Policy. It cannot be reduced to a discretionary privilege or denied solely due to administrative convenience or manpower shortage.
The article discusses the normative foundations of AI governance in the context of a partnership between India and which other country?
- A.United States
- B.China
- C.France✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Kingdom
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the emerging cooperation between India and France on AI governance as seen in the AI Summit, viewing it as a counterbalance to US-China dominance.
Consider the following statements regarding bias in automated decision-making systems:
1. Bias can occur even when protected attributes like caste or religion are explicitly excluded from the algorithm's inputs.
2. Systems tend to favor statistically dominant groups and treat minorities as 'anomalies', creating feedback loops that entrench disadvantage.
3. India's data protection framework provides a comprehensive 'right to explanation' against decisions based on automated processing, similar to the European Union's General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Bias occurs via 'proxy' indicators like postcode. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of feedback loops. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states India's framework remains largely silent on automated decision-making, and the EU's protection is limited.
According to the article, in which of the following domains are automated decision-making systems being used, as mentioned?
- A.Welfare benefits and health insurance premiums✓ Correct Answer
- B.Space exploration and satellite navigation
- C.Weather forecasting and disaster management
- D.Cultural heritage preservation and museum curation
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Explanation
The article specifically states these systems determine 'who receives welfare benefits' and 'how much health insurance premium is charged'. The other domains are not mentioned in the provided text.
What is identified as a primary reason why data protection laws alone may be insufficient to address bias in automated decision-making?
- A.They focus only on data collection, not algorithmic processing.
- B.They lack extraterritorial jurisdiction over global tech companies.
- C.Protections can be bypassed with nominal human oversight ('in the loop').✓ Correct Answer
- D.They are not applicable to government-run welfare schemes.
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Explanation
The article explains that the European law's 'right against decisions based solely on automated processing' evaporates when a human is nominally 'in the loop', allowing minimal human involvement to legitimize automated outcomes.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) and Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) for India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
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Explanation
The Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for formulating India's foreign trade policy and negotiating bilateral and multilateral trade and investment agreements, including BITs and FTAs.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel strategic partnership as discussed in the article:
1. The partnership is based solely on shared security concerns regarding cross-border terrorism and asymmetric warfare.
2. A key development in 2025 was the signing of the Terms of Reference for a Free Trade Agreement (FTA).
3. The complementarity lies in India's strength as an innovation hub and Israel's strength in providing large-scale manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the partnership is based on multiple factors including shared history, security concerns, and complementary economies, not solely on security. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the complementarity is the reverse: Israel is the innovation hub, while India provides scale and a large, fast-growing economy.
According to the article, how many ministerial visits were exchanged between India and Israel in the recent period that catalyzed deeper cooperation?
- A.Three
- B.Six
- C.Nine✓ Correct Answer
- D.Twelve
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that deeper cooperation, including the BIT and FTA talks, was achieved thanks to 'nine ministerial visits in both directions' over a short period.
What is identified as a primary objective of the expanding India-Israel strategic partnership in the article?
- A.To form a military alliance against common regional adversaries.
- B.To build joint resilience and elevate competitiveness through technological collaboration.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To primarily increase cultural and academic exchanges between the two nations.
- D.To reduce India's dependence on Russian defense equipment.
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Explanation
The article states that the partnership aims to take the countries 'where we want to be: Building joint resilience to withstand the challenges and elevating competitiveness by merging our efforts in developing cutting-edge technologies.' While defense is a component, the primary objective articulated is broader resilience and tech-driven competitiveness.
Which ministry is responsible for the Swadesh Darshan Scheme under which the Buddhist Circuit was developed?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Culture
- C.Ministry of Tourism✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Railways
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Swadesh Darshan Scheme was launched by the Ministry of Tourism. This ministry oversees the development of theme-based tourist circuits in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the Buddhist Circuit and Swadesh Darshan Scheme:
1. The Buddhist Circuit is India's first transnational tourist circuit, covering sites in India and Nepal.
2. The Swadesh Darshan Scheme provides 100% central funding for the development of identified thematic circuits.
3. Union Budget 2026 proposed a new Buddhist Circuit development scheme for the seven sister states of Northeast India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the Buddhist Circuit is India's first trans-national tourist circuit. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions projects under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme are 100% centrally funded. Statement 3 is incorrect; the Budget 2026 proposal is for six states (Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura), not all seven sister states.
Under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme, how many thematic circuits have been identified for development?
- A.10 themes
- B.12 themes
- C.15 themes✓ Correct Answer
- D.18 themes
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Explanation
The article clearly states that 15 themes have been identified under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme for developing theme-based circuits. These include Buddhist, Coastal, Desert, Eco, Heritage, Himalayan, Krishna, North-East, Ramayana, Rural, Spiritual, Sufi, Tirthankar, Tribal, and Wildlife Circuits.
What is the primary objective behind the government's focus on developing the Buddhist Circuit as a transnational tourist route?
- A.To increase railway revenue through tourist packages
- B.To project India as the birthplace of Buddhism and boost religious tourism✓ Correct Answer
- C.To promote adventure tourism in the Himalayan region
- D.To decentralize tourism and reduce crowding at popular sites
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Explanation
As stated in the article's relevance section, the aim is 'to project India as the birthplace of Buddhism' and increase tourism's contribution to the economy. This is the core strategic objective, while revenue generation and decentralization are secondary effects.
Which Union Ministry is primarily responsible for monitoring and responding to outbreaks of diseases like Nipah virus in India?
- A.Ministry of Health and Family Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article mentions the Union Health Ministry clarifying the status of Nipah cases. Disease surveillance, outbreak control, and public health response are under the mandate of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Consider the following statements regarding Nipah virus:
1. It was first identified in 1998 during an outbreak among pig farmers in Malaysia.
2. It is a double-stranded DNA virus with a large genome.
3. The Indian flying fox (Pteropus medius) is identified as a natural reservoir for the virus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; Nipah virus has a single-stranded negative-sense RNA genome, not DNA. Statement 3 is correct as Pteropus medius is identified as the reservoir in the context of Indian outbreaks.
According to the article, what is the approximate mutation rate (substitutions per site per year) for most RNA viruses?
- A.10⁻⁸
- B.10⁻⁵
- C.10⁻³✓ Correct Answer
- D.10⁻²
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Explanation
The article states that variations in mutational frequency in RNA viruses range widely, but most occur near the median of 10⁻³ substitutions per site per year. This is significantly higher than the rate for DNA viruses (10⁻⁸).
What is identified as a major ecological driver for the spillover of Nipah virus to humans in Bangladesh, as per the article?
- A.Consumption of undercooked pork
- B.Direct contact with infected pigs
- C.Consumption of fresh date palm sap contaminated by bats✓ Correct Answer
- D.Deforestation leading to bat habitat loss
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Explanation
The article explicitly identifies consumption of fresh date palm sap, frequently contaminated by bat saliva, urine, or feces, as a major risk factor for Nipah virus transmission in Bangladesh outbreaks. While deforestation is a broader driver, the specific, direct pathway mentioned is sap consumption.
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) operates under the administrative control of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Civil Aviation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Defence
- D.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
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Explanation
As per the article, the DGCA is under the Ministry of Civil Aviation's (MoCA) administrative control. This structure is cited as a reason for potential government interference, unlike independent global aviation regulators.
Consider the following statements regarding aviation safety issues discussed in the article:
1. The primary causative factors for accidents among Non-Scheduled Operators (NSOPs) include non-adherence to Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) and training deficiencies.
2. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) recruits all its technical staff directly from the market without involving the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
3. A Parliamentary Standing Committee has recommended granting the DGCA full administrative and financial autonomy to address critical technical staff shortages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the DGCA's review identified these as primary factors. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states DGCA recruits technical posts primarily through UPSC, which is a long-drawn process. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the Parliamentary Committee's report.
As per data presented in Parliament, what was the approximate staff vacancy rate in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) as of December?
- A.About 25%
- B.About 40%
- C.About 50%✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 75%
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Explanation
The article states that roughly half (about 50%) of the total sanctioned staff strength of 1,630 for the DGCA was empty as per data presented in Parliament. This highlights the severe understaffing issue.
What is a key reason cited in the article for safety norms being overlooked more frequently in Non-Scheduled Operator (NSOP) segments compared to scheduled airlines?
- A.NSOPs use newer and more complex aircraft technology.
- B.Scheduled airlines are exempt from DGCA's Flight Duty Time Limitations (FDTL).
- C.A stretched DGCA naturally gives more attention to large-scale scheduled airline operations.✓ Correct Answer
- D.NSOP pilots undergo more rigorous training than airline pilots.
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Explanation
Experts in the article point out that a regulator stretched for resources (due to understaffing) would naturally focus its limited oversight on larger scheduled airline operations, causing safety lapses in the smaller NSOP segment to slip through the cracks.
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Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?
For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
- Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
- Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.
Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 25 February 2026?▼
This page contains 144 current affairs questions from 25 February 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 25 February 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
- Q1. ministry/department is primarily responsible for formulating I…
- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India's recent tra…
- Q3. According to the Department of Commerce's 2025 Year-End Review…
- Q4. is a primary strategic rationale, as per the article, behind I…
- Q5. committee, chaired by a former Supreme Court judge, submitted …
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the amendment to t…
- Q7. In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark judgm…
- Q8. is the primary constitutional concern raised by the petitioner…
- Q9. The Tamil Nadu Startup and Innovation Mission (TANSIM) was est…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's econo…
- Q11. According to the article, what was Tamil Nadu's share in India…
- Q12. is identified as a primary structural challenge threatening Ta…
- Q13. According to the article, which international agency provided …
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Pax Silica ini…
- Q15. According to the International Energy Agency data cited in the…
- Q16. is the primary strategic objective of the Pax Silica initiativ…
- Q17. As per the Constitution, the power to alter the name of a stat…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Indi…
- Q19. According to the article, approximately how many girls who tur…
- Q20. is a primary strategic reason, as indicated in the article, fo…
- Q21. Under which Ministry does the Central Board of Film Certificat…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the observations m…
- Q23. The Supreme Court bench comprising Justices B V Nagarathna and…
- Q24. is the primary constitutional rationale cited by Justice Bhuya…
- Q25. US government department is responsible for enforcing export c…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Nvidia…
- Q27. According to the news article, what percentage of sales revenu…
- Q28. is the primary reason cited in the article for the US restrict…
- Q29. Under which flagship health scheme are Ayushman Arogya Mandirs…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the news on hypert…
- Q31. According to the Maharashtra screening campaign mentioned in t…
- Q32. is the primary significance of the specialized Renal Denervati…
- Q33. statutory body is responsible for identifying and notifying fa…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding fake universities …
- Q35. According to the UGC's February 2026 notification, what is the…
- Q36. is a primary reason, as highlighted in the article, for the pe…
- Q37. independent international institute is cited in the article as…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding India-Israel relat…
- Q39. According to the article, what was the peak value of India-Isr…
- Q40. is a significant dimension of the India-Israel partnership hig…
- Q41. The judgment discussed the authority of which statutory film c…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q43. The Supreme Court order discussed was pronounced by a Bench on…
- Q44. is the primary constitutional principle the judgment reinforce…
- Q45. The 'One Stop Centre (OSC)' scheme, which offers integrated su…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding Andhra Pradesh's i…
- Q47. According to the information provided by the Andhra Pradesh Ho…
- Q48. is the primary objective of the 'Operation TRACE' initiative l…
- Q49. The International Energy Agency (IEA), discussed in the contex…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the issues discuss…
- Q51. According to the article, what proportion of India's crude oil…
- Q52. is identified as a primary strategic implication for India of …
- Q53. ministry is responsible for implementing the proposed Direct B…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the fertiliser sub…
- Q55. According to the news article, how many farmers' IDs have been…
- Q56. is the primary objective behind the proposal to shift fertilis…
- Q57. of the following is the national legislature of Israel, which …
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister Nar…
- Q59. In February 2026, Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the I…
- Q60. According to Prime Minister Modi's address, what is the primar…
- Q61. The Supreme Court judgment discussed the concept of 'Fraternit…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q63. The Supreme Court judgment, as per the news, was delivered by …
- Q64. According to the Supreme Court's observations in the judgment,…
- Q65. intergovernmental organization, mentioned in the article, is I…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding India-Israel relat…
- Q67. According to the article, what is the estimated size of the In…
- Q68. is a primary strategic reason, as per the article, for India's…
- Q69. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is the Finance …
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the critique by fo…
- Q71. Finance Commission's report was critiqued by former RBI Govern…
- Q72. is the primary constitutional concern raised by C. Rangarajan …
- Q73. The news mentions Iran's Foreign Minister. Which ministry in I…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Iran…
- Q75. According to the article, how long was the war triggered by Is…
- Q76. is the primary objective Iran emphasizes in its diplomatic sta…
- Q77. regulatory body has issued the recommendations for the upcomin…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the recent TRAI re…
- Q79. According to industry calculations mentioned in the article, w…
- Q80. is the primary objective of the novel 'coverage-for-discount' …
- Q81. MASHAV, mentioned in the context of water management collabora…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel s…
- Q83. According to the article, what was the value of India-Israel b…
- Q84. is a primary strategic significance of the India-Middle East-E…
- Q85. As per the Indian Constitution, the State Election Commission …
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q87. After how many years did the Election Commission of India host…
- Q88. is the primary objective of the declaration adopted by the ECI…
- Q89. ministry is responsible for launching the nationwide free HPV …
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q91. According to the news, what is the potential value of the tele…
- Q92. is the primary objective of TRAI's recommendation for a unifor…
- Q93. Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commis…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Intens…
- Q95. According to the article, what was the approximate percentage …
- Q96. is identified as a key structural defect of the Special Intens…
- Q97. constitutional body issued the 2018 guidelines to prevent and …
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q99. According to the article, in which year did the Supreme Court …
- Q100. was the primary implication of the Supreme Court's 2026 observ…
- Q101. international organization's dispute settlement body has estab…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Chin…
- Q103. According to the article, what was the value of India's import…
- Q104. is the primary objective of China's request for a WTO panel es…
- Q105. Ministry is responsible for implementing the National Critical…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Brazil C…
- Q107. According to the article, for which period has the National Cr…
- Q108. is a primary strategic benefit for India from the MoU with Bra…
- Q109. The protest march in Maharashtra demanded proper implementatio…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the long march rep…
- Q111. According to the news article, what was the approximate distan…
- Q112. is a primary reason, as indicated in the article, for the prot…
- Q113. The Chhattisgarh Budget 2026-27 announced an allocation for Pa…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh B…
- Q115. According to the Chhattisgarh Budget 2026-27, what is the esti…
- Q116. is the primary strategic objective behind developing 'modern e…
- Q117. global public-private partnership is providing India with 2.6 …
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccinatio…
- Q119. According to the article, approximately how many girls turn 14…
- Q120. is a key strategic reason for targeting 14-year-old girls for …
- Q121. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), which delivered the…
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Admini…
- Q123. According to the Central Administrative Tribunal ruling, for a…
- Q124. is the primary legal significance of the Central Administrativ…
- Q125. The article discusses the normative foundations of AI governan…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding bias in automated …
- Q127. According to the article, in which of the following domains ar…
- Q128. is identified as a primary reason why data protection laws alo…
- Q129. ministry is primarily responsible for negotiating Bilateral In…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel s…
- Q131. According to the article, how many ministerial visits were exc…
- Q132. is identified as a primary objective of the expanding India-Is…
- Q133. ministry is responsible for the Swadesh Darshan Scheme under w…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the Buddhist Circu…
- Q135. Under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme, how many thematic circuits h…
- Q136. is the primary objective behind the government's focus on deve…
- Q137. Union Ministry is primarily responsible for monitoring and res…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding Nipah virus: 1. I…
- Q139. According to the article, what is the approximate mutation rat…
- Q140. is identified as a major ecological driver for the spillover o…
- Q141. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) operates unde…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding aviation safety is…
- Q143. As per data presented in Parliament, what was the approximate …
- Q144. is a key reason cited in the article for safety norms being ov…