26 February 2026, Questions & Answers
160 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
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This page contains 160 current affairs questions with answers from 26 February 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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160 QsThe Sabarimala case primarily involves the interpretation of which two Articles of the Indian Constitution?
- A.Article 14 and Article 15
- B.Article 25 and Article 26✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 19 and Article 21
- D.Article 29 and Article 30
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Explanation
The Sabarimala case centers on the conflict between Article 25 (freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion) and Article 26 (freedom to manage religious affairs of a religious denomination). The article explicitly discusses balancing these two provisions.
Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala case and its legal doctrines:
1. The 'essential religious practice' test requires courts to determine if a practice is critical to a religion, often involving theological interpretation.
2. Justice Indu Malhotra, in her dissent in the 2018 Sabarimala verdict, argued that the exclusion of women aged 10-50 was an 'essential religious practice' and thus protected.
3. The 'anti-exclusion test', as proposed, would prevent courts from intervening in any religious practice, even if it causes systematic exclusion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description of the 'essential religious practice' test. Statement 2 is correct; Justice Malhotra's dissent held the practice as essential. Statement 3 is incorrect; the 'anti-exclusion test' allows intervention when exclusion impairs dignity or access to basic goods, it does not prevent all intervention.
What was the judge-wise majority in the Supreme Court's original 2018 Sabarimala verdict (Indian Young Lawyers Association vs State of Kerala)?
- A.3:2
- B.4:1✓ Correct Answer
- C.Unanimous (5:0)
- D.2:3
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Explanation
The article states the original ruling was delivered through a 4:1 majority. CJI Dipak Misra (with Justice Khanwilkar), Justice Nariman, and Justice Chandrachud formed the majority. Justice Indu Malhotra gave a dissenting opinion.
According to the article, what is the primary objective of the proposed 'anti-exclusion test' in religious freedom jurisprudence?
- A.To make courts the final arbiter of all religious scriptures and doctrines.
- B.To protect the autonomy of religious groups to define their tenets without any state interference.
- C.To allow state intervention only when a religious practice threatens public order or health.
- D.To balance religious autonomy with constitutional values by intervening when practices cause systematic exclusion that impairs dignity.✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explains that the 'anti-exclusion test' accepts religious autonomy as a starting point but intervenes when the exercise of that liberty leads to systematic exclusion of individuals from places or benefits integral to a life of dignity. This is its core objective, distinguishing it from other approaches.
According to the article, the nationwide HPV vaccination programme in India will be conducted exclusively at which type of facilities?
- A.Private hospitals and clinics
- B.Designated government health facilities✓ Correct Answer
- C.All schools across the country
- D.Mobile vaccination camps in rural areas
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the vaccination will be conducted 'exclusively at designated government health facilities.' This ensures trained medical oversight and structured AEFI management, a key learning from past incidents.
Consider the following statements regarding India's HPV vaccination programme:
1. It targets girls aged 14 with a single-dose vaccine regimen recommended by the WHO.
2. The programme aims to prevent cervical cancer, which is the most common cancer among women in India.
3. HPV types 16 and 18 are responsible for less than 50% of cervical cancer cases in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states cervical cancer is the 'second most common cancer' in women in India, not the most common. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly states these two types 'together account for more than 80% of cervical cancer cases in India.'
According to the article, what was the estimated national screening coverage for cervical cancer among women aged 30-49 years in India?
- A.0.5%
- B.1.9%✓ Correct Answer
- C.5.2%
- D.10.7%
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions that 'National screening coverage remains alarmingly low, with only 1.9% of women aged 30-49 being tested.' This highlights a critical gap in the secondary prevention of cervical cancer.
What is a primary lesson from India's past experience with HPV vaccine trials that is being addressed in the new nationwide programme?
- A.Focusing only on urban populations for higher coverage
- B.Increasing the number of doses from one to three for better efficacy
- C.Ensuring meticulous reporting and investigation of Adverse Events Following Immunisation (AEFI)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Procuring vaccines exclusively from international manufacturers
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Explanation
The article references the 2009-10 trial deaths and the subsequent ICMR investigation which flagged the need to identify and investigate all AEFI. It concludes that the new programme must ensure 'complete transparency, and meticulous reporting of AEFI across the country.'
Which constitutional body has been issued a notice by the Supreme Court in the plea seeking a cap on political parties' election expenses?
- A.Comptroller and Auditor General of India
- B.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- C.Finance Commission of India
- D.Union Public Service Commission
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Explanation
The Supreme Court issued notice to the Centre and the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI is the constitutional body established under Article 324 responsible for administering elections in India, making it a key respondent in matters concerning election expenditure.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court case on capping political party election expenses:
1. The PIL was filed by NGO Centre for Public Interest Litigation.
2. The current law imposes a limit on election expenditure for both individual candidates and political parties.
3. The Supreme Court bench hearing the case is headed by Chief Justice of India Surya Kant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the plea was filed by NGO Centre for Public Interest Litigation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly mentions there is a limit on individual candidate expenditure but no limit on spending by parties. Statement 3 is correct as the bench is led by CJI Surya Kant along with Justices Joymalya Bagchi and Vipul M. Pancholi.
According to the Supreme Court's observations in the electoral bonds case cited in the article, what was the described impact of unregulated party funding on democracy?
- A.It was described as a 'scourge' skewing electoral democracy.✓ Correct Answer
- B.It was described as a 'necessary evil' for campaign finance.
- C.It was described as a 'minor administrative issue'.
- D.It was described as a 'boost for political transparency'.
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Explanation
The article explicitly quotes the counsel stating that in the electoral bonds case, the Supreme Court said, "This is a scourge, a huge problem. This is skewing our electoral democracy because there is unbridled use of money power by political parties in elections." The other options are contrary to the Court's critical stance.
What is the primary constitutional challenge identified by Justice Bagchi in imposing a cap on political party election spending?
- A.It may violate the Right to Equality under Article 14.
- B.It may conflict with the Freedom of Expression under Article 19(1)(a).✓ Correct Answer
- C.It may infringe upon the Right to Property under Article 300A.
- D.It may undermine the federal structure under Article 368.
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Explanation
Justice Bagchi directly raised the concern that imposing an embargo on funding could be challenged as affecting freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a), which includes expression through material support. This constitutional tension between regulating money power and protecting free speech is the core legal dilemma highlighted in the proceedings.
Which ministry is responsible for releasing the National Accounts Statistics, including GDP data, in India?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Planning
- D.NITI Aayog
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Explanation
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency responsible for macroeconomic data, including the National Accounts Statistics which contain GDP and GVA estimates. This is a core static GK fact.
Consider the following statements regarding the new series of National Accounts data:
1. It updates the base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23 for GDP and GVA calculations.
2. It uses GST data for the first time ever in estimating the output of private corporations.
3. It incorporates the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) data on an annual basis instead of extrapolation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states the base year is updated from 2011-12 to 2022-23. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article mentions GST data was already being used in quarterly accounts and for some sectors in annual data; the new series expands its use. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states ASUSE data will be used on an annual basis for direct estimation.
What is the new base year for the revised series of National Accounts data (GDP/GVA) as per the news?
- A.2015-16
- B.2019-20
- C.2022-23✓ Correct Answer
- D.2024-25
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the base year is being updated from 2011-12 to 2022-23. This is a direct factual recall question suitable for Prelims. The other options are plausible distractors representing recent years.
What is a primary objective of incorporating GST data into the new National Accounts series, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To increase government tax revenue collections
- B.To simplify the tax filing process for corporations
- C.To better estimate the regional output and value added by private corporations✓ Correct Answer
- D.To replace all other surveys like ASUSE and PLFS
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Explanation
The article states that GST data will be used 'to better estimate the regional output of private corporations, and will also be used to more accurately determine the contribution of the value added by private companies to the GDP'. This is its primary statistical objective. The other options, like increasing revenue or simplifying filing, are not mentioned as goals of this data integration exercise.
Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for releasing India's national income accounts and GDP data?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.Reserve Bank of India
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Explanation
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency for the release of official statistics including GDP, national income accounts, and related economic data in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's 2026 GDP revision:
1. It shifts the base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
2. It increases reliance on apportionment methods for estimating state-level Gross Value Added.
3. The revised Gross State Domestic Product figures impact state borrowing limits under the FRBM framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the revision reduces reliance on apportionment by using more direct state-specific data. Statement 3 is correct as FRBM fiscal deficit and debt limits are expressed as ratios to GSDP.
According to the article, what weight does the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) hold in the Finance Commission's formula for distributing central tax revenues to states?
- A.5%
- B.10%✓ Correct Answer
- C.15%
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Finance Commission distributes central tax revenues using formula-based criteria that now assign a 10 per cent weight to GSDP.
What is a primary fiscal implication for a state if its Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) is revised upward due to the new GDP methodology?
- A.Its share in centrally sponsored schemes will automatically decrease.
- B.Its borrowing headroom under the FRBM framework will expand.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It will receive a lower share from the Finance Commission's devolution.
- D.It will be mandated to increase its own tax revenue collection.
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Explanation
Under FRBM, fiscal deficit and debt limits are expressed as ratios to GSDP. An upward revision in GSDP improves these ratios mechanically, thereby expanding the state's permissible borrowing limits without any change in its actual fiscal behavior.
Shashi Tharoor, the author of the article, is the Chairman of which Parliamentary Committee?
- A.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Defence
- B.Parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance
- D.Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article's byline explicitly states the writer is 'chairman, Parliamentary Standing Committee on External Affairs.' This is a direct fact from the source material.
Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget 2026-27 defence allocations:
1. The defence budget saw an increase of 15.19% over the previous year's estimate.
2. The capital outlay for defence modernisation decreased as a percentage of the total budget.
3. Nearly 75% of the modernisation fund is earmarked for procurement from foreign vendors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states a '15.19 per cent increase.' Statement 2 is incorrect: The capital outlay saw a '21.8 per cent surge,' indicating an increase, not a decrease. Statement 3 is incorrect: The article states 'nearly 75 per cent... for domestic procurement,' not foreign vendors.
What is the total defence allocation for the Union Budget 2026-27 as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹6.81 lakh crore
- B.₹7.85 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹2.19 lakh crore
- D.₹3.65 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states 'a record allocation of Rs 7.85 lakh crore.' ₹6.81 lakh crore is the previous year's estimate, ₹2.19 lakh crore is the capital outlay, and ₹3.65 lakh crore is the revenue budget.
According to the article, what is the primary strategic rationale presented for the significant increase in defence spending?
- A.To engage in an arms race with neighbouring countries
- B.To consolidate deterrence and address structural military weaknesses✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase military exports and become a net security provider
- D.To reduce the revenue expenditure share of the defence budget
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that the spending is 'deterrence consolidation' and a 'course correction' to close 'glaring gaps' and 'structural weaknesses,' not an arms race. It explicitly rejects the 'arms race' charge and frames it as a necessary response to security realities.
The NCERT, which was directed by the Supreme Court in the news, functions under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Human Resource Development
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
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Explanation
The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is an autonomous organization that works under the Union Ministry of Education. It is responsible for designing the National Curriculum Framework and publishing model textbooks for school education.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court order mentioned in the news:
1. The Court imposed a ban on the further publication and digital dissemination of an NCERT Class 8 textbook.
2. The Court initiated the case based on a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) filed by a group of teachers.
3. The Court issued show-cause notices to officials under the provisions of the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions a 'complete blanket ban' on publication and digital dissemination. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states the Court took up a 'suo motu case', meaning it initiated proceedings on its own, not based on a PIL. Statement 3 is incorrect as the show-cause notices were issued under the Contempt of Courts Act, not the Official Secrets Act.
As per the Supreme Court's directive in the news, within what timeframe were the Principal Secretaries of all states asked to file a compliance report?
- A.1 week
- B.2 weeks✓ Correct Answer
- C.4 weeks
- D.6 weeks
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'The bench asked principal secretaries of all states to file a compliance report in 2 weeks.' This is a factual data point directly from the source.
What was the primary legal ground cited by the Supreme Court bench for initiating action against the NCERT and government officials?
- A.Defamation under the Indian Penal Code
- B.Violation of the Right to Education Act
- C.Contempt of Courts for undermining judiciary's dignity✓ Correct Answer
- D.Breach of official protocol under the Conduct Rules
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Explanation
The article states the bench issued notices 'asking them to show cause why action under the Contempt of Courts Act... should not be initiated'. The Court's reasoning, as quoted, was that the textbook chapter was a 'calculated move to undermine and demean dignity of judiciary', which falls under the purview of scandalizing the court, a form of criminal contempt.
Which article of the US Constitution vests the power to lay and collect taxes, duties, and imposts exclusively with the Congress?
- A.Article I, Section 8✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article II, Section 2
- C.Article III, Section 1
- D.Article IV, Section 1
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Explanation
Article I, Section 8 of the US Constitution explicitly states: 'The Congress shall have Power to lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises...'. This was the core constitutional provision cited by the US Supreme Court majority to strike down the presidential tariffs.
Consider the following statements regarding the US Supreme Court judgment on tariffs:
1. The case was titled Learning Resources Inc. v. Donald J. Trump.
2. The Court ruled that the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) explicitly authorizes the President to impose tariffs during a national emergency.
3. The judgment was delivered by a 6:3 majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court ruled that IEEPA does NOT grant the President power to impose tariffs. Statement 3 is correct as the verdict was by a 6:3 majority. Hence, option C is correct.
What was the final tariff rate imposed on Chinese goods, as mentioned in the article, before they were struck down by the US Supreme Court?
- A.34%
- B.84%
- C.125%✓ Correct Answer
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article states: 'On Chinese goods, for example, the tariffs were increased to 20 per cent and then to 34, 84 and finally to 125 per cent.' Therefore, the final rate was 125%.
What was the primary constitutional principle invoked by the US Supreme Court majority to invalidate President Trump's tariffs?
- A.The principle of Federalism, dividing power between federal and state governments.
- B.The principle of Separation of Powers, vesting the taxing power exclusively in Congress.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The principle of Due Process under the Fifth Amendment.
- D.The principle of Equal Protection under the Fourteenth Amendment.
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Explanation
The majority opinion held that the Constitution did not grant any taxing power to the executive branch (President); this power vested solely with Congress under Article I, Section 8. This is a classic application of the separation of powers doctrine.
Which US government department conducted the countervailing duty investigation on Indian solar products?
- A.Department of State
- B.Department of Commerce✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Energy
- D.Office of the United States Trade Representative
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the US Department of Commerce imposed the 126% tariff and conducted the anti-subsidy investigation. The Department of Commerce is the primary federal agency responsible for promoting economic growth and enforcing trade laws.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The US imposed a 126% preliminary countervailing duty on solar imports from India after two Adani Group companies cooperated fully with the investigation.
2. India's defence budget for 2026-27 saw a 15.19% increase, with nearly 75% of the capital acquisition budget earmarked for domestic procurement.
3. The nationwide HPV vaccination campaign will use the indigenously developed Cervavac vaccine for all 14-year-old girls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The duty was imposed because the two Adani Group companies 'withdrew' and were 'non-responsive', not because they cooperated. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the campaign will use the Gardasil vaccine by MSD, as Cervavac is yet to receive WHO approval and its single-dose effectiveness is under study.
What is the total allocation for the defence budget in the Union Budget 2026-27 as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹6.81 lakh crore
- B.₹7.85 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹2.19 lakh crore
- D.₹3.65 lakh crore
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Explanation
The article clearly states: "the Union Budget 2026-27 has significantly bolstered its national security framework with a record allocation of Rs 7.85 lakh crore." ₹6.81 lakh crore was the previous year's estimate, ₹2.19 lakh crore is the capital outlay, and ₹3.65 lakh crore is the revenue budget.
What is a primary strategic rationale, as discussed in the article, for India's significant increase in defence expenditure?
- A.To engage in an arms race with neighbouring countries
- B.To reduce the pension burden on the defence budget
- C.To build credible deterrence and ensure strategic autonomy✓ Correct Answer
- D.To exclusively fund the import of next-generation fighter aircraft
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Explanation
The article argues that the defence surge is "a sign of maturity" and that "strategic autonomy, if it means anything, requires credible national capability." It states the purpose is to build credible deterrence in a complex security environment, not to fuel an arms race. The other options are either incorrect or represent narrower, specific aspects of the budget.
The judgment discussed the 'Model Employer' doctrine. In the context of Indian Polity, who is typically considered the 'Model Employer'?
- A.The Private Sector
- B.The State (Government)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Public Sector Undertakings
- D.Multinational Corporations
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Explanation
The 'Model Employer' doctrine is a principle in service jurisprudence where the State (Central and State Governments) is expected to set exemplary standards of fairness, non-arbitrariness, and welfare for its employees, as highlighted in the article. This concept is central to governance and administrative law.
Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Haryana High Court judgment on 'karewa' marriage and family pension:
1. The court held that the disqualification of a widow from family pension upon remarriage is intended to be a punitive measure.
2. The judgment stated that 'karewa' marriage is recognized under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
3. The court invoked Article 21 of the Constitution to affirm that family pension is essential for a dignified life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court specifically stated that the legislative intent behind disqualification is 'redistributive' (to shift financial responsibility), not 'punitive'. Statement 2 is correct as per the article, which mentions 'karewa' is recognized under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act. Statement 3 is correct as the judgment invoked Article 21's right to life with dignity, describing pension as a social security measure vital for dignified survival.
According to the news article, on which date did the Punjab and Haryana High Court deliver the judgment regarding family pension for widows in 'karewa' marriages?
- A.February 26, 2026
- B.January 29, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.July 16, 1988
- D.November 6, 1990
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'In a judgment delivered on January 29, Justice Harpreet Singh Brar held...' February 26, 2026, is the article's publication date. July 16, 1988, is the date of the first husband's death, and November 6, 1990, is the date of the 'karewa' remarriage.
What was the primary constitutional basis used by the Punjab and Haryana High Court to uphold the widow's right to family pension despite her remarriage?
- A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
- B.Article 19 (Freedom of Speech and Expression)
- C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
- D.Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
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Explanation
The judgment heavily relied on Article 21, interpreting the 'right to life' to include the right to live with dignity. The court stated that a family pension is a social security measure vital for dignified survival, especially after the loss of the primary breadwinner. This expansive interpretation of Article 21 forms the core constitutional reasoning of the judgment.
The shift in fiscal policy anchor discussed in the article was recommended by which committee?
- A.Fifteenth Finance Commission
- B.Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee✓ Correct Answer
- C.N.K. Singh Committee
- D.Kelkar Committee on Fiscal Consolidation
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the shift to anchoring fiscal policy in public debt follows the recommendation of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Review Committee.
Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal policy changes discussed in the article:
1. The Union Budget 2026-27 has shifted the fiscal anchor from fiscal deficit-to-GDP to debt-to-GDP ratio.
2. The new fiscal strategy aims to bring the central government's debt-to-GDP ratio to 40% by 2030-31.
3. The overall sovereign debt of India, including both Centre and States, is currently around 83% of GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target is 50% (+/- 1%), not 40%. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions overall sovereign debt is about 83% of GDP.
According to the article, what is the current approximate level of debt-to-GDP ratio for Indian states?
- A.About 18% of GDP
- B.About 23% of GDP
- C.About 28% of GDP✓ Correct Answer
- D.About 33% of GDP
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Explanation
The article provides the specific data point: "states’ debt is about 28% of GDP."
What is the primary rationale cited in the article for anchoring fiscal policy to debt rather than just fiscal deficit?
- A.To simplify the budgeting process for the Finance Ministry.
- B.Because debt is a more comprehensive stock variable reflecting the government's true fiscal burden and sustainability.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To align India's fiscal framework with International Monetary Fund (IMF) recommendations.
- D.To reduce the transparency of government borrowing from the public.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that "debt does matter" and higher debt leads to higher servicing costs and opportunity costs. The shift recognizes debt as the stock that results from annual deficit flows, making it a more holistic anchor for long-term sustainability.
Micron Technology, which is setting up India's first semiconductor ATMP plant, is headquartered in which country?
- A.South Korea
- B.Taiwan
- C.United States of America✓ Correct Answer
- D.Japan
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Explanation
The article states Micron Technology is an 'American semiconductor company based in Boise, Idaho.' This static GK fact is crucial as global semiconductor manufacturing is dominated by companies from specific countries like the USA (Intel, Micron), Taiwan (TSMC), and South Korea (Samsung).
Consider the following statements regarding the semiconductor plant being inaugurated in Sanand:
1. It is India's first semiconductor fabrication plant focusing on Assembly, Testing, Marking and Packaging (ATMP).
2. The plant will manufacture both DRAM and NAND products, which are crucial for memory and storage in AI systems.
3. The total investment for the facility is over ₹20,000 crore, and it is expected to create more than 10,000 direct jobs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article headline and content. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the plant will enable assembly and test for DRAM and NAND products, linking them to AI. Statement 3 is incorrect because the precise investment is ₹22,516 crore (not just 'over ₹20,000 crore') and it will create 5,000 direct jobs (not 10,000).
What is the exact investment amount announced for Micron Technology's semiconductor ATMP plant in Sanand, Gujarat?
- A.₹20,000 crore
- B.₹21,500 crore
- C.₹22,516 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹25,000 crore
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Explanation
The article provides the precise figure: 'The semiconductor company has invested Rs 22,516 crore in Sanand.' Examiners often test the exact number against rounded figures mentioned in headlines ('over Rs. 20,000 crore').
What is a key strategic objective of establishing Micron's ATMP plant in India, as highlighted in the article?
- A.To solely serve the domestic smartphone market
- B.To address demand from both domestic and international markets, particularly for AI applications✓ Correct Answer
- C.To replace all imports of consumer electronics
- D.To focus exclusively on research and development of new chip designs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the plant aims 'to address demand from domestic and international markets' and later explains that the products 'will support the rising demand for memory and storage solutions in the AI sector.' The other options are either too narrow ('solely serve domestic market'), exaggerated ('replace all imports'), or incorrect ('focus exclusively on R&D'), as the plant is for manufacturing.
The Union Minister for which portfolio recently addressed the issue of platform responsibility and deepfakes at the DNPA Conclave?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- B.Ministry of Information & Broadcasting✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Law and Justice
- D.Ministry of Home Affairs
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Explanation
The article clearly states that Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw, who holds the portfolio of Information & Broadcasting (I&B), made the statements at the Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA) Conclave.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent statements by the Union I&B Minister on online platforms:
1. He identified deepfakes as a major threat to trust in institutions like the judiciary and media.
2. He stated that platforms must take responsibility for hosted harmful content due to its viral nature.
3. He mentioned that a parliamentary committee has expressed concern about these issues after stakeholder consultations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the Minister identified deepfakes as a major threat. Statement 2 is correct as he said platforms 'must take the responsibility for the hosted harmful content' due to virality. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions a parliamentary committee gave a report after consultation with stakeholders.
According to the Union I&B Minister, which of the following was cited as a recent legislative action to protect citizens from online financial harm?
- A.A law to regulate cryptocurrency trading
- B.A law to prevent bankruptcy from online money games✓ Correct Answer
- C.An amendment to the Consumer Protection Act for e-commerce
- D.A law mandating KYC for all digital payments
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Explanation
The Minister explicitly mentioned, 'we passed a law by which crores of families are saved from becoming absolutely bankrupt by losing out their money to the online money games.' The other options, while plausible, are not mentioned in the article.
What was the primary rationale given by the I&B Minister for urging online platforms to rethink their revenue sharing models?
- A.To increase government tax revenue from digital advertising
- B.To ensure fair compensation for intellectual property and sustain societal growth✓ Correct Answer
- C.To fund the development of indigenous social media platforms
- D.To penalize platforms hosting synthetic content
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Explanation
The Minister linked fair revenue sharing to respect for intellectual property, stating that without it, 'the growth of science, technology, arts and literature, and that of society as a whole, would get stunted.' The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which autonomous body under the Ministry of Education is primarily responsible for developing school curriculum frameworks and textbooks, as discussed in the news?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
- D.National Institute of Educational Planning and Administration (NIEPA)
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Explanation
The article discusses controversies around NCERT textbooks. NCERT is the apex resource organization for school education in India, tasked with advising governments and developing curriculum frameworks and model textbooks.
Consider the following statements regarding the NCERT textbook controversy mentioned in the article:
1. The controversial section was included in a revised Class 8 Social Science textbook and cited data on pending cases from March 2025.
2. The Chief Justice of India took suo motu cognizance of the issue after senior advocates raised concerns, describing the textbook content as a 'calculated conspiracy'.
3. NCERT subsequently withdrew the textbook and apologized, citing 'inappropriate textual material and an error of judgement'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the Class 8 textbook and specific pending case data from March 2025. Statement 2 is correct as it details the CJI's suo motu action and his quoted description. Statement 3 is correct as the article states NCERT withdrew the book and issued an apology with those exact words.
According to the National Judicial Data cited in the NCERT textbook (as of March 2025), what was the approximate number of pending cases in the Supreme Court of India?
- A.8,100
- B.81,000✓ Correct Answer
- C.8,10,000
- D.81,00,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the textbook cited data showing pending cases in the Supreme Court as 81,000 as of March 2025. The other options are common distractors based on misplacing decimal points or adding extra zeros.
What is the primary ethical concern raised in the article regarding the inclusion of the 'Corruption in the Judiciary' section in the Class 8 NCERT textbook?
- A.It promotes a negative perception of the legal profession among students.
- B.It presents opinions and unverified assertions as facts to young students.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It diverts attention from more important historical topics in the curriculum.
- D.It violates copyright laws by quoting the former Chief Justice without permission.
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Explanation
The article's core criticism, as highlighted in the text, is that the textbook content presented 'opinions and unverified assertions as facts', raising pedagogical and ethical concerns about influencing young minds without proper evidence. This is the central argument against its appropriateness.
Which institute, under the Kerala Finance Department, conducted the Kerala Migration Survey 2023 mentioned in the article?
- A.Centre for Development Studies (CDS)
- B.Gulati Institute of Finance and Taxation (GIFT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.International Institute of Migration and Development (IIMAD)
- D.Kerala State Planning Board
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Kerala Migration Survey 2023 was conducted by the Gulati Institute of Finance and Taxation (GIFT), an autonomous institute under the State Finance Department, with technical support from IIMAD. CDS is the institution established by K.N. Raj, and the Planning Board publishes the Economic Review.
Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's economy as discussed in the article:
1. Kerala's per capita GSDP is higher than the national average.
2. The productivity of rice in Kerala is lower than the national average.
3. Fisheries is a key sector, with Kerala being the second-largest seafood exporter in India by volume.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states Kerala's per capita GSDP was ₹1,76,072 against the national average of ₹1,24,600. Statement 2 is incorrect: It says rice productivity in Kerala (2,790 kg/hectare) is higher than the national average (2,424 kg/hectare). Statement 3 is incorrect: Kerala is the third-largest seafood exporter by volume and the second-largest by value.
According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey cited in the article, what was Kerala's unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in 2023-24?
- A.3.2%
- B.5.3%
- C.7.2%✓ Correct Answer
- D.9.04%
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Explanation
The article directly quotes the Periodic Labour Force Survey, stating Kerala's unemployment rate was 7.2%, which is more than double the all-India level of 3.2%. The 9.04% figure refers to the retail inflation rate in August 2025.
What is identified as a primary reason for the 'visible face of a mismatch between economic growth and human development' in Kerala, as per the State Planning Board?
- A.Low levels of literacy and education
- B.High rates of unemployment, especially among the educated✓ Correct Answer
- C.Inadequate healthcare infrastructure
- D.Over-dependence on the agricultural sector
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Explanation
The article quotes the State Planning Board's working-group paper, which identified high rates of unemployment, and unemployment among the educated, as the visible face of the mismatch between Kerala's economic growth and its impressive human development achievements.
The 'Bharat-VISTAAR' AI-powered tool, launched to assist farmers, was introduced by which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
- B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article states that Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan launched Bharat-VISTAAR. Therefore, the nodal ministry is the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Consider the following statements regarding the India AI Impact Summit 2026:
1. It was the first AI Summit held in the Global South.
2. The key outcome document, the New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact, has been signed by over 100 countries.
3. The summit comprised seven working groups termed 'chakras' covering topics like 'Safe & Trusted AI' and 'AI for Social Good'.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article mentions the summit was the first held in the Global South. Statement 2 is incorrect: The declaration was signed by 88 countries and organizations, not over 100. Statement 3 is correct: The article lists the seven 'chakras', including 'Safe & Trusted AI' and 'AI for Social Good & Economic Development'.
According to the Union Budget 2026-27 mentioned in the article, what was the allocation made for the IndiaAI Mission?
- A.₹500 crore
- B.₹750 crore
- C.₹1,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹1,500 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "In the Union Budget 2026–27, ₹1,000 crore was allocated to the IndiaAI Mission (FY26–27) to continue support for domestic AI R&D and compute infrastructure."
What is the primary objective of the 'MANAV' vision for AI, as unveiled during the India AI Impact Summit 2026?
- A.To achieve technological supremacy over other nations in AI research.
- B.To provide a framework for ethical, accountable, and sovereign AI governance.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To exclusively promote the development of Artificial General Intelligence (AGI).
- D.To mandate binding international regulations on AI safety and security.
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Explanation
The 'MANAV' vision, as explained, stands for Moral and ethical systems, Accountable governance, National sovereignty, Accessible and inclusive, and Valid and legitimate AI. It outlines a nuanced, human-centric approach to AI governance, focusing on ethics and accountability rather than supremacy, exclusive AGI development, or binding regulations (which the article notes are voluntary).
The recent statements on digital platform accountability and AI deepfakes were made by the Union Minister holding which of the following portfolios?
- A.Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs
- B.Minister of Home Affairs and Cooperation
- C.Minister of Electronics & IT, Railways, and Information & Broadcasting✓ Correct Answer
- D.Minister of Law and Justice and Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the minister, Ashwini Vaishnaw, is the "minister for Information and Broadcasting, Railways and IT." This combination of portfolios is unique and a key static GK fact.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent government stance on digital platforms:
1. The government has stated that digital platforms can no longer claim to be mere intermediaries and must take responsibility for hosted content.
2. The government has mandated that all AI-generated content must carry a government-issued watermark for authentication.
3. The government has called for platforms to ensure fair revenue sharing with content creators, especially news publishers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article quotes the minister saying, "The time is gone when platforms could say they are not responsible for content." Statement 2 is incorrect; the article mentions a call for 'mandatory consent' for AI content, not a government watermark. Statement 3 is correct as the minister urged platforms to "share value fairly with creators."
At which industry event did Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw make the recent statements on digital platform accountability?
- A.Global Fintech Festival
- B.Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA) Conclave 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.India Mobile Congress
- D.Raisina Dialogue
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that the statements were made "at the Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA) Conclave." The other options are major events but were not mentioned in the context of this news.
What is the primary objective behind the government's call for 'mandatory consent' for AI-generated content, as highlighted in the news?
- A.To boost India's AI research and development capabilities
- B.To protect individuals from unauthorized use of their likeness in synthetic media (deepfakes)✓ Correct Answer
- C.To streamline the process of obtaining copyright for digital content
- D.To mandate government approval for all AI algorithms used in India
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Explanation
The minister's examples—"How can a video of a famous news anchor be generated without consent"—directly point to the misuse of personal likeness to create deceptive deepfakes. The core objective is to establish a consent framework to prevent such misuse and protect individual identity.
Which two Union Ministries filed the joint affidavit in the Supreme Court regarding the construction of PMAY-G houses on forest land?
- A.Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of Environment
- B.Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Panchayati Raj and Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- D.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and Ministry of Environment
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Explanation
As per the article, the joint affidavit was filed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change following the Supreme Court's direction. This is a key static fact about the nodal ministries responsible for the Forest Rights Act and Forest Conservation Act respectively.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognizes the right to hold and live on forest land for habitation.
2. The Supreme Court had directed that exemptions under FRA include construction of pucca dwelling houses without any conditions.
3. The case before the Supreme Court involves a contempt petition filed by Swami Pathranand against the non-compliance of NGT orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as Section 3 of FRA includes the right to habitation. Statement 2 is incorrect; the SC in its September 2025 order noted that exemptions under FRA are for government-provided facilities and 'does not include construction of a pucca dwelling house' unconditionally, hence asking for convergence. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions Swami Pathranand filed a contempt petition on grounds of non-compliance of NGT orders.
According to the article, for how many tribal families in Binega village did the Gram Sabha recommend recognition of Individual Forest Rights in January 2016?
- A.50 families
- B.63 families✓ Correct Answer
- C.75 families
- D.100 families
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that a resolution was passed by the Gram Sabha in January 2016 recommending recognition of Individual Forest Rights for 63 tribal families in Binega village. This is a precise data point from the news.
What is the primary legal implication of the Centre's submission to the Supreme Court in this case?
- A.It mandates Gram Sabha approval for all PMAY-G houses on forest land.
- B.It states that prior approval under FCA 1980 is not required if Individual Forest Rights are recognized under FRA 2006.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It transfers the authority for forest land diversion from the Centre to the State Governments.
- D.It makes the National Green Tribunal the final authority for settling forest rights disputes.
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Explanation
The core of the Centre's affidavit, as reported, is that once IFRs are recognized under FRA 2006, the need for separate prior approval under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 shall not arise for PMAY-G houses. This is the central legal argument with significant implications for scheme implementation.
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), which proposed the EV mandate for Delhi-NCR, is a statutory body established under which Act?
- A.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- B.The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
- C.The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021✓ Correct Answer
- D.The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
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Explanation
The CAQM is a statutory body established by the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021. This act specifically created the CAQM to supersede previous authorities and coordinate air quality management in the NCR region.
Consider the following statements regarding the news article on CAQM's EV proposal:
1. The expert panel's recommendation is to allow registration of only electric vehicles in Delhi-NCR by the year 2030.
2. According to the CAQM panel report, pollution from transport accounts for 50% of PM2.5 concentrations in Delhi-NCR winters.
3. Gas distributor Indraprastha Gas Ltd (IGL) has suggested a 'dual pathway' involving CNG for medium/heavy vehicles and electric mobility for two-wheelers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the panel may back 'only electric cars be registered in Delhi-NCR by 2030'. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the transport sector accounts for 23% of PM2.5, not 50%. Statement 3 is correct as IGL suggested a 'dual pathway' as mentioned in the article.
According to the CAQM panel report cited in the article, what percentage of PM2.5 concentrations in Delhi-NCR during winters is attributed to pollution from transport?
- A.15%
- B.23%✓ Correct Answer
- C.30%
- D.40%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Pollution from transport... accounts for 23% of PM 2.5 concentrations, making it the largest primary source in winters, as per the CAQM’s panel report.' The other options are plausible distractors but incorrect.
What is a primary concern raised by carmakers regarding the proposed 2030 EV-only registration mandate for Delhi-NCR?
- A.Lack of sufficient lithium reserves for battery manufacturing in India.
- B.Inadequate charging infrastructure, grid capacity, and consumer financing ecosystems.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The higher overall carbon footprint of manufacturing electric vehicles.
- D.Potential job losses in the traditional automotive manufacturing sector.
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Explanation
The article directly quotes industry voices warning that 'Delhi... lacks charging infrastructure, grid capacity, and consumer financing ecosystems needed for an all-EV mandate within four years.' The other concerns, while relevant to the broader EV debate, are not mentioned in the provided article text.
Which constitutional body's order was set aside by the Karnataka High Court in the case leading to these guidelines?
- A.Supreme Court of India
- B.Central Information Commission✓ Correct Answer
- C.Election Commission of India
- D.National Human Rights Commission
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Explanation
The article states that the Karnataka High Court allowed a petition filed by the Income Tax Department and set aside an order of the Central Information Commission (CIC). The CIC is the apex body under the RTI Act to adjudicate on information appeals.
Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High Court's guidelines on accessing spouse's financial records:
1. The guidelines allow direct access to Income Tax returns under the RTI Act for spouses in maintenance disputes.
2. Trial courts must complete hearings on applications for financial records within 21 days.
3. The guidelines are gender-neutral and apply to both husbands and wives seeking information.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect as the article clearly states the RTI Act does NOT permit such disclosure; the court created a separate judicial procedure. Statement 2 is incorrect because the timeline for trial court hearings is 14 days, not 21 days (21 days is for IT Dept compliance). Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly says the guidelines apply equally to applications filed by wives and husbands.
As per the Karnataka High Court guidelines, within how many working days must the Income Tax Department comply with a trial court's 'production order' for a spouse's financial records?
- A.14 working days
- B.21 working days✓ Correct Answer
- C.30 working days
- D.45 working days
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Explanation
The article specifies that 'the Income Tax Department must comply with judicial orders within 21 working days through the designated nodal officers'. The 14-day timeline is for the trial court to hear the application.
What is the primary legal rationale provided by the Karnataka High Court for issuing these new guidelines on accessing financial records?
- A.To override the Income Tax Act's confidentiality clauses.
- B.To address the genuine difficulty spouses face in establishing true income for determining fair maintenance, as RTI Act does not permit such disclosure.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To reduce the case backlog in family courts by simplifying evidence submission.
- D.To align Indian matrimonial law with international human rights standards on financial transparency.
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Explanation
The article states the court acted 'on noticing the genuine difficulties faced by spouses in establishing the true income of their partners for determining just maintenance/alimony' and because 'the law does not permit couples in matrimonial disputes to access each other’s financial data under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.' This is the core rationale directly from the source.
Under the PCPNDT Act, 1994, which authority is primarily empowered to file a complaint for taking cognizance of an offence?
- A.The State Police
- B.The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- C.The Appropriate Authority or an officer authorized by it✓ Correct Answer
- D.The National Commission for Women
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Explanation
As per Section 28(1) of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, no court shall take cognizance of an offence under this Act except on a complaint made by the appropriate authority or by any officer authorized in this behalf. This is a key procedural feature of the Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on the PCPNDT Act:
1. The Court held that evidence collected during an illegal search under the Act is always inadmissible in court.
2. The Court emphasized that cases under the PCPNDT Act should be tried as complaint cases, and the police should not be involved in investigation as per the Rules.
3. The Court stated that any deficiency in maintaining records of ultrasonography as prescribed under the Act amounts to a contravention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The SC ruled that evidence from an illegal search is NOT automatically discarded and can be relied upon subject to relevancy. Statement 2 is correct as per Rule 18A(3)(iv) of the PCPNDT Rules mentioned in the judgment. Statement 3 is correct as per the proviso to Section 4(3) of the PCPNDT Act highlighted by the Court.
In the Gurugram case discussed by the Supreme Court, what was the alleged amount of money demanded for conducting the illegal sex-determination test?
- A.Rs. 10,000
- B.Rs. 15,000
- C.Rs. 20,000
- D.Rs. 25,000✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the doctor allegedly 'demanded Rs. 25,000 for carrying out sex-determination of the foetus'. This is a factual detail from the case background.
What is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's observation that 'female foeticide is a crude manifestation of discrimination' in this judgment?
- A.It establishes a new fundamental right against discrimination.
- B.It provides the constitutional basis for striking down the PCPNDT Act.
- C.It frames the issue as a grave social malady, justifying a strict interpretation of the law to combat it.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It directs the Parliament to enact a new law with stricter punishments.
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Explanation
The Court's characterization of female foeticide as a 'crude manifestation of discrimination' and a 'social malady' sets the context for its subsequent rulings. It justifies adopting a purposive interpretation of the PCPNDT Act, such as allowing evidence from procedurally flawed searches, to effectively achieve the law's objective of preventing sex selection.
Under which Act was the National Green Tribunal (NGT) established?
- A.The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- B.The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- D.The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
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Explanation
The NGT is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. While it adjudicates cases under laws like the EPA, 1986 and FCA, 1980, its own founding legislation is the NGT Act, 2010.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
1. It serves as the primary appellate authority for orders issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
2. An analysis of its orders from 2020-2025 shows it ruled in favour of project developers in approximately 80% of appeals against the denial of environmental clearances.
3. The Supreme Court, in a 2021 judgment, described the NGT as a mere adjudicatory body with limited powers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article which states NGT is the 'primary appellate authority' for MoEFCC orders. Statement 2 is correct as the article cites data showing 80% success for industry appeals (126 of 159). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Supreme Court's 2021 judgment described the NGT as a 'specialized' protector, not a 'mere adjudicatory body'.
According to the investigation covering NGT orders from 2020 to 2025, what percentage of appeals filed by citizens and activists against the grant of environmental/forest clearances were successful?
- A.7%
- B.20%✓ Correct Answer
- C.80%
- D.88%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'of the 329 appeals filed by citizens and activists against the grant of clearances... only in 20% (65 cases), did the NGT rule in favour of the appeal.' The 7% and 88% figures relate to the more recent 2024-25 period, while 80% is the success rate for industry appeals.
A significant number of citizen appeals to the NGT were dismissed as 'time-barred'. What is the primary implication of this, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It shows the NGT is efficiently managing its caseload by dismissing old cases.
- B.It indicates a lack of merit in most environmental challenges raised by citizens.
- C.It creates an inequity as project-affected people often miss the short filing deadline due to inaccessible clearance notifications.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It demonstrates the government's success in streamlining the environmental clearance process.
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Explanation
The article quotes an expert pointing out that while industry has legal teams to track filings, 'victims from economically weaker sections often miss the 90-day appeal deadline because clearances are rarely publicized in accessible formats.' This highlights a procedural barrier that disadvantages citizens, not a reflection on case merit or process efficiency.
Under which Act was the National Green Tribunal (NGT) established?
- A.The Environment Protection Act, 1986
- B.The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Forest Conservation Act, 1980
- D.The Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021
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Explanation
The NGT is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 and Forest Conservation Act, 1980 are laws under which the NGT exercises appellate jurisdiction. The Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 amended the appointment process.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT):
1. The NGT Act mandates a strength of 10-20 full-time judicial members and 10-20 full-time expert members.
2. The selection committee for appointing NGT members, as per the Tribunals Reforms Act 2021, includes the Environment Secretary as a member with voting rights.
3. The NGT has appellate jurisdiction over orders passed under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 and the Forest Conservation Act, 1980.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the NGT Act. Statement 2 is incorrect: The article states that the Environment Secretary is the member-secretary 'without vote'. Statement 3 is correct as explicitly mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the news article, how many expert members appointed to the NGT since 2016 were former government officers?
- A.5
- B.7
- C.9✓ Correct Answer
- D.11
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Explanation
The article states that 'as many as nine of 13 expert members appointed in the NGT since 2016 were part of the decision-making process... during their stint in the government.' This indicates 9 out of the 13 were former government officers.
What is the primary governance concern highlighted by the appointment trend of NGT expert members discussed in the article?
- A.A lack of sufficient technical expertise among the members.
- B.A potential conflict of interest and challenge to the principle of natural justice.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An increase in the tribunal's operational costs due to high salaries.
- D.A delay in the enactment of new environmental laws.
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Explanation
The article's core critique is that former government officers who granted environmental clearances are now adjudicating appeals against those decisions, creating a conflict of interest. This violates the principle of 'nemo judex in causa sua' (no one should be a judge in their own cause), a cornerstone of natural justice.
Which US government department is responsible for initiating countervailing duty investigations, as mentioned in the news?
- A.US Department of State
- B.US Department of Commerce✓ Correct Answer
- C.US Trade Representative (USTR)
- D.US International Trade Commission (USITC)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the US Department of Commerce initiated the countervailing duty (CVD) investigation on August 6, 2025. It is the executive agency responsible for investigating subsidies and imposing preliminary duties.
Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff imposition on Indian solar products:
1. The US imposed a 126% tariff after two Adani Group companies, designated as mandatory respondents, withdrew from the investigation.
2. The investigation period was amended to the calendar year 2024 upon request from the Indian government.
3. The US Department of Commerce cited India's high dependency on imports from China as a concern while imposing the duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect: the period was amended from calendar year 2024 to the Indian fiscal year (April 2024-March 2025), not kept as the calendar year. Statement 3 is correct as the US pointed to India's reliance on Chinese imports.
According to the article, what was the value of solar imports from India to the United States in the year 2024?
- A.$500.2 million
- B.$650.8 million
- C.$792.6 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.$1.2 billion
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Explanation
The article states: 'Solar imports from India were valued at $792.6 million in 2024'. The other figures are distractors not mentioned in the text.
What was a key reason cited by the US Department of Commerce for imposing the countervailing duties, beyond the non-cooperation by specific companies?
- A.India's violation of intellectual property rights
- B.India's high dependency on Chinese imports for solar manufacturing✓ Correct Answer
- C.India's failure to meet its climate commitments under the Paris Agreement
- D.India's imposition of high tariffs on US agricultural products
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Explanation
The article has a dedicated section titled 'US objects to dependence on China' and quotes the report stating the Indian solar industry is 'heavily reliant on imports from China'. This was a key contextual reason alongside the specific subsidy probe.
Which of the following international organizations co-authored the report estimating Ukraine's post-war reconstruction cost?
- A.World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- B.World Bank, European Union, and United Nations✓ Correct Answer
- C.North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and European Union
- D.Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and World Trade Organization (WTO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the estimate was from "A joint report by the World Bank, European Union (EU), United Nations, and Ukraine". The IMF, NATO, OECD, and WTO are not mentioned as authors of this specific report.
Consider the following statements regarding the economic impact of the Russia-Ukraine war:
1. Ukraine's GDP is estimated to have contracted by almost 30% in the year 2022.
2. Russia's economy grew by over 3% in the last year, showing resilience against sanctions.
3. Defence spending in Ukraine accounted for more than half of the country's total expenditure since 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'Its GDP growth contracted by almost 30% in 2022.' Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Russia's economy 'grew by less than 1% last year'. Statement 3 is correct: 'In Ukraine, defence spending consistently accounted for more than half of the country’s spending since 2022.'
According to the article, what is the estimated cost of post-war reconstruction in Ukraine over the next decade?
- A.$250 billion
- B.$400 billion
- C.$558 billion✓ Correct Answer
- D.$750 billion
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'estimates the cost of post-war construction in Ukraine to be around $558 billion over the next decade.' The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
A primary consequence of the high defence spending in Ukraine, as highlighted in the news, has been:
- A.A significant increase in foreign direct investment.
- B.A sharp decline in expenditure on education, healthcare, and social protection.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The stabilization of the Ukrainian Hryvnia's exchange rate.
- D.A rapid reduction in the country's fiscal deficit.
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Explanation
The article directly links high defence spending to reduced social sector allocation: 'expenditure on education, health care, and social protection declined by more than half when compared to 2021.' The other outcomes are not supported by the article's content.
Which Indian ministry has prepared a draft 2030 roadmap for Carbon Capture, Utilisation and Storage (CCUS), as mentioned in the article?
- A.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Science and Technology
- D.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the draft 2030 roadmap for CCUS was presented by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. This ministry oversees energy resources, including initiatives related to carbon management in the fossil fuel sector.
Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) technologies in India:
1. India is the world's third-largest emitter of CO2, with major contributions from power generation and industries like cement and steel.
2. The Department of Science and Technology (DST) provides research funding but has not created any specific roadmap for CCU technologies.
3. A key challenge for scaling CCU in India is the cost competitiveness of CCU-derived products compared to fossil-based alternatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states that DST has created a specific R&D roadmap for CCU technologies. Statement 3 is correct, as high cost is identified as the foremost risk. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is India's committed target year for achieving net-zero emissions?
- A.2050
- B.2060
- C.2070✓ Correct Answer
- D.2080
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Explanation
The article clearly states that CCU aligns with India's net-zero target for 2070. This is a key commitment made by India at the COP26 climate summit and is a crucial data point for environment-related questions.
What is identified as the primary objective of promoting Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU) technologies for India, as per the article?
- A.To completely replace renewable energy sources in the power sector.
- B.To reduce emissions from hard-to-abate industrial sectors and create new value chains.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To achieve energy independence by reducing crude oil imports.
- D.To primarily generate carbon credits for international trading.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that CCU offers a pathway to reduce emissions from 'hard-to-abate' sectors like cement and steel, which are difficult to decarbonize, while simultaneously creating new industrial value chains. This aligns with India's net-zero and circular economy goals.
Which ministry is primarily responsible for the IndiaAI Mission that subsidizes LLM training in India?
- A.Ministry of Science and Technology
- B.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Education
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) has encouraged domestic LLM development for reasons including fostering the Indian AI ecosystem and addressing language representation issues.
Consider the following statements regarding the news on Indian LLM training:
1. The IndiaAI Mission has commissioned over 36,000 GPUs in data centres operated by Indian firms like Yotta.
2. Sarvam AI's LLMs were trained on 35 billion and 105 billion parameters respectively and demonstrate improvements primarily in European languages.
3. A key reason for government support is the belief that foreign-developed LLMs cannot develop the capacity to work well with Indian languages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because Sarvam AI's models demonstrated improvements over other models in Indian languages, not European languages. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions this as a main reason for government encouragement.
According to the article, what is the estimated government subsidy provided to Sarvam AI for accessing GPUs under the IndiaAI Mission?
- A.Almost ₹50 crore
- B.Almost ₹100 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Almost ₹200 crore
- D.Almost ₹250 crore
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Explanation
The article states: "The government gave Sarvam access to 4,096 GPUs from its common compute cluster, and the subsidy so far is estimated at almost ₹100 crore." The other figures are distractors; ₹246 crore is the 'bill of materials' for the cluster.
What is a primary advantage of the Mixture of Experts (MoE) architecture for Large Language Models, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It requires activating all parameters during inference, ensuring maximum accuracy.
- B.It only activates a fraction of the overall parameters, making it run faster and consume fewer resources.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It is specifically designed to improve translation capabilities between Indian and European languages.
- D.It eliminates the need for GPU clusters for training, drastically reducing costs.
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Explanation
The article explains that unlike earlier models which activated all parameters, an MoE model 'only activates a fraction of the overall parameters of a model, making it run faster and also consume a lower level of computing resources.' This is its key advantage for cost-effective deployment.
Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting elections to the Rajya Sabha?
- A.President of India
- B.Supreme Court of India
- C.Election Commission of India✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes to Parliament (Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha) and State Legislatures, as per Article 324 of the Constitution.
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
1. Its maximum strength, as per Article 80, is 250 members.
2. All its members are directly elected by the citizens of India.
3. The President of India nominates 12 members for their special knowledge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Article 80 allows a maximum of 250 members. Statement 2 is incorrect: Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and Union Territories. Statement 3 is correct: The President nominates 12 members with special knowledge in fields like art, literature, etc.
According to the article, how many Rajya Sabha seats are going to polls in the upcoming election?
- A.25
- B.37✓ Correct Answer
- C.45
- D.50
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 37 Rajya Sabha seats are going to polls across 10 states. The other numbers are distractors.
What is the primary purpose of the 'open ballot' system used in Rajya Sabha elections?
- A.To increase voter turnout among MLAs
- B.To allow the public to witness the voting process
- C.To prevent cross-voting by party MLAs✓ Correct Answer
- D.To speed up the vote counting process
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Explanation
The 'open ballot' rule requires each party MLA to show their marked ballot to their party's authorized agent before casting it. This ensures party discipline by making it difficult for MLAs to vote against the party's official candidate, thereby preventing cross-voting.
Which apex government body publishes the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index, in which Tamil Nadu emerged as a frontrunner in 2023-24?
- A.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
- B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
- C.Planning Commission
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article states that the SDG India Index 2023-24 was published by the NITI Aayog in 2024. NITI Aayog is the premier policy 'Think Tank' of the Government of India, which replaced the Planning Commission.
Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's economic profile as per the article:
1. Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state in India, with close to 50% of its population living in urban areas according to the 2011 Census.
2. The state's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) growth rate in 2024-25 was in single digits, after a gap of 14 years.
3. Tamil Nadu contributes over 30% of India's electronic exports and accounts for 25% of the country's passenger car production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Only 2 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states Tamil Nadu registered a double-digit growth rate (11.19%) in 2024-25, the only state to do so that year, and after a gap of 14 years. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the state accounts for over 30% of electronic exports and 25% of passenger car production.
According to the article, what was Tamil Nadu's composite score in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index 2023-24 published by NITI Aayog?
- A.66
- B.72
- C.78✓ Correct Answer
- D.82
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Tamil Nadu's composite score in the SDG India Index 2023-24 rose to 78, a significant rise from 66 in 2018. The other numbers are distractors: 66 was the 2018 score.
The article highlights Tamil Nadu's 'dispersed development' model as a key differentiator. What is a primary challenge to this model, as indicated by the state's own Economic Survey?
- A.Over-reliance on the primary agricultural sector for employment.
- B.High inter-regional disparity, with most districts having a per capita income below the state average.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of any major urban centers outside the capital, Chennai.
- D.Complete absence of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in rural areas.
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Explanation
The article directly states that despite overall progress, inter-regional disparity is glaring, with 30 of the 38 districts having a per capita income lower than the state's average. This is a key challenge to the inclusive growth narrative of the dispersed development model.
The writer of the article is associated with which national institute?
- A.National Institute of Design (NID)
- B.Film & Television Institute of India (FTII)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Indian Institute of Mass Communication (IIMC)
- D.Satyajit Ray Film & Television Institute (SRFTI)
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Explanation
The article's byline explicitly states 'The writer is assistant film research officer, Film & Television Institute of India, Pune.' This is a direct static fact from the source.
Consider the following statements regarding the AVGC sector and gig work as discussed in the article:
1. The Union Budget proposes to set up AVGC labs in 15,000 schools and 500 colleges.
2. The Economic Survey 2025-26 notes that over 50% of gig workers in India earn less than ₹15,000 a month.
3. In India's creator economy, barely 8–10 per cent of creators are able to monetise their work effectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening paragraph. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states 'nearly 40 per cent' not 'over 50%'. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article. Hence, option C is correct.
According to the article, what is the estimated number of freelancers in India?
- A.5–8 million
- B.8–12 million
- C.12–15 million✓ Correct Answer
- D.15–20 million
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Explanation
The article states: 'The country has an estimated 12–15 million freelancers...'. The other options are plausible distractors but do not match the specific data point provided in the source.
What is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the AVGC sector's job projections?
- A.The lack of technological infrastructure in schools and colleges.
- B.The risk of jobs being predominantly unstable, project-based gig work without formal protections.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The potential for intellectual property theft from international studios.
- D.The insufficient budgetary allocation for the proposed AVGC labs.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis questions the nature of the projected jobs, highlighting that employment in this sector is increasingly project-based, freelance, and lacks long-term contracts, benefits, or predictable income. This concern about job quality versus quantity is the central argument.
Which ministry is the nodal agency for formulating and implementing policies related to Left Wing Extremism (LWE) in India?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Rural Development
- D.Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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Explanation
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is the nodal ministry for India's internal security, including counter-insurgency operations and policy against Left Wing Extremism (LWE). The article mentions the MHA's strategy and its February 2026 review of LWE-affected districts.
Consider the following statements regarding the decline of Maoist insurgency in India:
1. The number of Left Wing Extremism (LWE)-affected districts has shrunk from nearly 200 in the early 2000s to just 38 by the end of 2025.
2. The 'Clear, Hold, Develop' strategy was first formulated and implemented by the Narendra Modi government after 2014.
3. As per a February 2026 review, only three districts—Bijapur, Narayanpur, and Sukma—are now categorised as 'Most Affected' by LWE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the comprehensive strategy was developed by the MHA under P. Chidambaram (UPA government), and the Modi government continued it with minor tweaks. Statement 3 is correct as mentioned in the article.
According to the article, approximately how many kilometres of roads have been built to take forces deep into the forested interiors of central India as part of the counter-LWE strategy?
- A.Over 5,000 km
- B.Over 10,000 km
- C.Over 15,000 km✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 20,000 km
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Over 15,000 km of roads have been built to take forces deep into forested interiors of central India' as part of the infrastructure push to counter Maoist influence. This is a key data point highlighting the state's developmental approach.
What is identified as the primary future challenge after the security decline of the Maoist insurgency, according to the analysis in the article?
- A.Preventing the regrouping of the CPI (Maoist) Central Committee in urban areas.
- B.Turning the security victory into durable legitimacy by filling the governance vacuum.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Launching a nationwide de-radicalization program for former Maoist cadres.
- D.Rehabilitating surrendered Maoists into the paramilitary forces.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that the next phase tests whether the Indian state can 'turn a hard-won security victory into durable legitimacy.' The core challenge is to replace insurgent structures with effective, visible state governance—functional schools, health centres, and grievance redress—to prevent new forms of alienation or criminality in the vacuum left by Maoists.
Which High Court delivered the judgment discussed in the article regarding interfaith live-in relationships and the UP anti-conversion law?
- A.Delhi High Court
- B.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.Bombay High Court
- D.Madras High Court
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the judgment was delivered by the Allahabad High Court. Justice Vivek Kumar Singh of the Allahabad High Court allowed a batch of 12 writ petitions filed by interfaith couples.
Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court judgment discussed in the article:
1. The court held that the Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act, 2021, applies to all interfaith live-in relationships.
2. The judgment relied on Supreme Court precedents like Lata Singh vs. State of UP (2006) to uphold the right to choose a partner under Article 21.
3. The court directed the police to comply with a 2019 state government order providing 'safe houses' and security to threatened couples.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held the opposite: that the 2021 Act does NOT apply to live-in relationships where no conversion is sought. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions the court leaned on SC judgements including Lata Singh vs. State of UP. Statement 3 is correct as the court invoked and directed strict compliance with the state government order dated August 31, 2019.
How many writ petitions filed by interfaith couples were allowed by Justice Vivek Kumar Singh in the Allahabad High Court judgment discussed in the article?
- A.5 petitions
- B.12 petitions✓ Correct Answer
- C.15 petitions
- D.20 petitions
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Explanation
The article states that Justice Vivek Kumar Singh allowed a batch of 12 writ petitions filed by interfaith couples. This is a specific factual detail from the news report.
What was the primary legal reasoning of the Allahabad High Court in holding that the UP anti-conversion law does not bar interfaith live-in relationships?
- A.The law had been repealed by the state legislature.
- B.The couples had already obtained permission from the District Magistrate.
- C.The Act applies only where religious conversion is involved, which was not the case here.✓ Correct Answer
- D.The law was found to be ultra vires of the Constitution by the Supreme Court.
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Explanation
The court's core reasoning, as per the article, was an examination of Section 3 of the Act. Justice Singh noted that for the Act to apply, 'conversion from one religion to another religion is necessary.' Since the petitioners were living together without converting, the Act was not contravened. The other options are not supported by the article's content.
Which US government department awarded Anthropic a $200 million defense contract, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Department of Homeland Security
- B.Department of Defense (Pentagon)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Commerce
- D.Central Intelligence Agency
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that Anthropic won a $200 million contract with the DoD (Department of Defense) last year and is officially part of the US defence supply chain.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. Anthropic has accused three Chinese AI laboratories – DeepSeek, MoonShot and MiniMax – of reverse-engineering its AI model Claude.
2. Anthropic settled a lawsuit for $1.5 billion in September 2025 over allegations of training Claude using pirated books.
3. The article suggests that restricting the flow of AI knowledge is easy due to coordinated multilateral frameworks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's opening. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the $1.5 billion settlement in September 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article argues the opposite, stating that restricting AI knowledge flows is 'increasingly difficult' and input-based controls are 'leaky', unlike the controlled traceability of fissile material.
What was the approximate number of coordinated prompt exchanges Anthropic alleges were used by Chinese firms to retrieve data about its models?
- A.1.6 million
- B.16 million✓ Correct Answer
- C.160 million
- D.1.6 billion
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Explanation
The article states that Anthropic accuses the Chinese companies of deploying coordinated prompts that 'collectively amount to 16 million exchanges' aimed at retrieving data.
According to the article's analysis, what is a primary implication of the Anthropic-China data theft episode for global technology governance?
- A.It will lead to immediate and complete decoupling of US and Chinese tech sectors.
- B.It demonstrates the inevitability of AI diffusion despite attempts at control.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It proves that open-source AI development is inherently safer than closed-source.
- D.It shows that China has achieved technological parity with the US in frontier AI.
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Explanation
The article concludes that such episodes highlight the 'inevitability of AI diffusion' because knowledge circulates through open research and talent mobility, making restrictions 'leaky'. The other options are not supported: decoupling is not stated as certain, open-source safety is debated, and the article states Chinese capabilities 'lag behind'.
As per the Supreme Court's Prakash Singh guidelines, which constitutional body is responsible for vetting the panel of senior IPS officers for DGP appointment?
- A.Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)✓ Correct Answer
- B.State Public Service Commission
- C.Ministry of Home Affairs
- D.State Security Commission
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Explanation
The Supreme Court's 2006 directives in the Prakash Singh case specify that the state government must send a list of eligible IPS officers to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). The UPSC then vets the list and sends a shortlist of three officers back to the state for appointment.
Consider the following statements regarding the DGP appointment process mentioned in the news:
1. The Supreme Court's Prakash Singh guidelines mandate that a DGP must have a minimum tenure of two years.
2. The Punjab Police Amendment Bill, 2023, proposes a selection committee headed by a sitting judge of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
3. As per the Supreme Court order, the state government must send the panel of eligible officers to the UPSC three months before the incumbent DGP's retirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the apex court's directions say the DGP should have a tenure of at least two years. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Punjab Bill provides for a committee headed by a retired chief justice or a retired judge, not a sitting judge. Statement 3 is correct: The article mentions the process requires sending the list three months before retirement as per the Prakash Singh case directions.
As per the news, for how long has Gaurav Yadav been serving as the officiating DGP of Punjab?
- A.1 year and 6 months
- B.2 years and 4 months
- C.3 years and 8 months✓ Correct Answer
- D.Over 4 years
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Explanation
The article states Gaurav Yadav was appointed as officiating DGP on July 5, 2022, and has already completed three years and eight months as acting DGP. This exceeds the Supreme Court's norm that an officiating DGP should not be posted for more than six months.
What is the primary constitutional principle being tested by the Punjab government's stance on DGP appointment?
- A.The supremacy of Parliament over state legislatures.
- B.The binding nature of Supreme Court directions under Article 141 versus state legislative power.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The discretionary powers of the Governor in granting assent to state bills.
- D.The role of the President in resolving disputes between the Centre and states.
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Explanation
The core conflict is between the state's legislative authority to enact the Punjab Police Amendment Bill (under State List) and the Supreme Court's directives in the Prakash Singh case, which are binding on all authorities under Article 141 of the Constitution. Punjab's potential defiance challenges the enforceability of these judicial guidelines.
Which of the following is a key military and security force of Iran, as mentioned in the article?
- A.Iranian Army
- B.Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Basij Resistance Force
- D.Ministry of Intelligence and Security
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Explanation
The article explicitly identifies the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC) as Iran's entrenched security apparatus that has embedded asymmetric doctrine into statecraft. The other options, while part of Iran's security structure, are not the primary force highlighted for its strategic role.
Consider the following statements regarding the strategic dynamics between the US and Iran as discussed in the article:
1. Iran's strategic strength allows it to impose political costs on the US primarily through achieving conventional military parity.
2. A key US dilemma is that focusing military resources on West Asia undermines its strategic pivot to the Indo-Pacific.
3. The article contrasts the outcomes of the two Gulf Wars to illustrate the perils of pursuing regime change through military means.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 2
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states Iran does NOT need conventional parity to create strategic shock; it uses asymmetric tools (proxies, drones). Statement 2 is correct as the article notes every carrier group in the Gulf is a resource not available for the Indo-Pacific pivot. Statement 3 is correct as the article uses the contrast between the two Gulf Wars to show the instability caused by expanding objectives to regime change.
According to the article, which specific event marked a turning point after which a sustained Israeli campaign, with US support, diluted parts of Iran's regional network?
- A.The US withdrawal from JCPOA (2018)
- B.The assassination of Qasem Soleimani (2020)
- C.The Abraham Accords (2020)
- D.October 7, 2023✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifically states: "After October 7, 2023, a sustained Israeli campaign, with US political and military support, has diluted parts of that network." This is the only date provided in the context of the recent campaign against Iran's proxies.
What is the primary strategic dilemma facing the United States in its approach towards Iran, as per the article's analysis?
- A.Choosing between diplomatic engagement and complete military isolation.
- B.Lacking a publicly defined end-state that justifies the high costs of potential regime change.✓ Correct Answer
- C.Inability to match Iran's asymmetric warfare capabilities in the maritime domain.
- D.Deciding whether to support Israel unconditionally or seek a balanced approach in West Asia.
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Explanation
The article's core thesis is that US strategy suffers from unclear objectives. It concludes: "Washington lacks a publicly defined end-state that would justify the costs of regime change." The other options are secondary facets or assumptions not presented as the primary dilemma.
Which ministry has been allocated ₹1,39,289 crore in the Union Budget 2026-27, as per the article?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
- D.Ministry of Science and Technology
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Education has been allotted ₹1,39,289 crores in the Union Budget 2026-27, which is an 8.27% increase from the previous year.
Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget 2026-27's focus on education:
1. It emphasizes strengthening pre-service teacher education through the expansion of the Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP).
2. A key objective is to bridge the gap between education and employment, as indicated by initiatives like the 'Education to Employment and Enterprise' Standing Committee.
3. The budget allocation for the Ministry of Education represents a decrease compared to the previous year to fund new AI research centers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the budget's imperative to strengthen pre-service teacher education via ITEP expansion. Statement 2 is correct as the budget aims to create a bridge between education and employment, with the mentioned committee as an example. Statement 3 is incorrect because the budget allocation saw an 8.27% increase, not a decrease.
What is the percentage increase in the Ministry of Education's budget allocation for 2026-27 as mentioned in the article?
- A.5.50%
- B.7.15%
- C.8.27%✓ Correct Answer
- D.9.10%
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure: "The Ministry of Education has been allotted ₹ 1,39,289 crores, which is an 8.27% increase from previous year." The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
According to the article, what is identified as the fundamental requirement for ensuring that ambitious educational reforms move 'from paper to practice'?
- A.Increased budgetary allocations for digital infrastructure.
- B.Launching entirely new schemes every year.
- C.Teachers feeling supported, confident, and professionally valued.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Comparing India's education spending to global GDP percentages.
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Explanation
The article argues that policies and tools only hold significance when teachers can apply them, stating clearly: "When teachers feel supported, confident, and professionally valued, reforms move from paper to practice." This identifies teacher empowerment as the critical enabler for implementation.
The India-Israel 'Special Strategic Partnership' discussions included cooperation under the I2U2 framework. What does 'U' stand for in I2U2?
- A.United Kingdom
- B.United States
- C.United Arab Emirates✓ Correct Answer
- D.United Nations
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Explanation
As mentioned in the article discussing IMEC and I2U2 cooperation, I2U2 stands for India-Israel-United Arab Emirates-United States. This is a minilateral forum focusing on joint investments in areas like water, energy, transportation, and food security.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel partnership upgrade:
1. The partnership was elevated to a 'Special Strategic Partnership' during Prime Minister Modi's first visit to Israel.
2. A key outcome was the agreement for the use of India's UPI payment system in Israel.
3. The two nations agreed to work towards joint development and production of military hardware.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The article states this was PM Modi's second visit to Israel in nine years, and the elevation happened during this visit (2026), not the first visit (2017). Statements 2 and 3 are directly mentioned in the article regarding UPI agreement and defense co-production.
According to the news, on which date in 2026 did India and Israel elevate their ties to a Special Strategic Partnership?
- A.February 25, 2026
- B.February 26, 2026✓ Correct Answer
- C.February 27, 2026
- D.February 28, 2026
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the elevation occurred on Thursday, February 26, 2026, following talks between the Prime Ministers. PM Modi had landed on February 25, and the announcement was made on the 26th.
What was a primary strategic reason cited by India for supporting the Gaza Peace Initiative, as per PM Modi's statement in the article?
- A.To increase Indian exports to Gaza
- B.To secure energy supplies from the region
- C.Because India's security interests are linked to peace in West Asia✓ Correct Answer
- D.To counter Chinese influence in the Middle East
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Explanation
The article directly quotes PM Modi stating, "India’s security interest is linked to peace and stability in West Asia." This connects regional stability to India's own security, making it a primary strategic reason for supporting the peace initiative, beyond humanitarian or economic motives.
The Supreme Court banned a textbook published by which autonomous body under the Ministry of Education?
- A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
- B.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
- D.National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Supreme Court banned an NCERT textbook. NCERT is the autonomous body responsible for curriculum and textbook development at the national level.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Supreme Court banned an NCERT textbook for Class 10.
2. The Court acted on a suo motu case regarding the textbook content.
3. The Court ordered the government to submit compliance reports within one month.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The textbook was for Class 8, not Class 10. Statement 2 is correct: The article states the Court was hearing a suo motu case. Statement 3 is incorrect: The deadline for compliance reports was two weeks, not one month.
For which class was the NCERT Social Science textbook that was banned by the Supreme Court?
- A.Class 6
- B.Class 7
- C.Class 8✓ Correct Answer
- D.Class 9
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions the NCERT's newest Social Science textbook for Class 8. This is a precise factual data point from the news.
What was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for banning the NCERT textbook?
- A.The textbook contained factual errors about historical events.
- B.The textbook's chapter on the judiciary was deemed a 'deep-rooted conspiracy' against it.✓ Correct Answer
- C.The textbook was not aligned with the National Education Policy 2020.
- D.The textbook violated copyright laws by using unpublished material.
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Explanation
The article quotes the CJI-led Bench calling it a 'deep-rooted conspiracy against the judiciary'. The Court's concern was the content's perceived bias and impact on young students, not factual errors, NEP alignment, or copyright.
Which country acted as the mediator in the indirect nuclear talks between the US and Iran, as per the news?
- A.Qatar
- B.Oman✓ Correct Answer
- C.Switzerland
- D.United Nations
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the talks were mediated by Oman. Omani Foreign Minister Badr al-Busaidi presented Iran's proposals to US officials in Geneva.
Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran nuclear talks:
1. The talks are direct negotiations between US and Iranian diplomats.
2. Iran's Supreme Leader Ayatollah Ali Khamenei issued a fatwa against the development of nuclear weapons in the early 2000s.
3. The talks are being held against the backdrop of a reduction in US military presence in the Middle East.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states the negotiations are 'indirect', with Omani intermediaries shuttling proposals. Statement 2 is correct as mentioned in the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article describes an intensification of US military pressure, including the deployment of the USS Gerald R. Ford supercarrier, not a reduction.
According to the article, which US naval asset was deployed to the Middle East amid the nuclear talks?
- A.USS Nimitz
- B.USS Dwight D. Eisenhower
- C.USS Gerald R. Ford✓ Correct Answer
- D.USS George H.W. Bush
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions the 'supercarrier USS Gerald R. Ford' left Souda Bay in Crete en route to the Middle East as part of the US military pressure during the talks.
What is a primary objective of Iran, as stated in the news, for engaging in the nuclear talks?
- A.To secure technology for developing nuclear weapons
- B.To achieve the lifting of international sanctions✓ Correct Answer
- C.To form a military alliance against Israel
- D.To replace Oman as the regional mediator
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Explanation
Iranian Foreign Ministry spokesman Esmail Baghaei is quoted stating Iran's clear positions are 'the lifting of sanctions and the peaceful use of nuclear energy.' While it insists on peaceful use, the lifting of sanctions is a stated primary objective.
The recent mandate for the sale of E20 petrol across India was issued via a notification by which ministry?
- A.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
- B.Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the oil ministry (Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas) issued the notification on February 17 directing oil companies to sell E20 petrol. This ministry is the nodal body for fuel policies and regulations in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the government's mandate on ethanol-blended petrol:
1. It mandates the sale of petrol with up to 20% ethanol (E20) across all States and Union Territories from April 1, 2026.
2. The fuel must have a minimum Research Octane Number (RON) of 97 to ensure engine compatibility.
3. A primary objective of this policy is to reduce India's dependence on imported crude oil and cut down vehicular emissions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the mandated minimum RON is 95, not 97. This is a classic examiner trap swapping the number. Statement 3 is correct as the article clearly states the policy aims to 'help cut oil imports as also reduce emissions'.
According to the article, by how much has India saved in foreign exchange through petrol substitution since 2014-15?
- A.Over ₹1.00 lakh crore
- B.Over ₹1.40 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.Over ₹2.00 lakh crore
- D.Over ₹2.50 lakh crore
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Explanation
The oil ministry data cited in the article states that India has saved more than ₹1.40 lakh crore in foreign exchange since 2014-15 through petrol substitution via ethanol blending. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a key technical reason cited in the article for mandating a minimum Research Octane Number (RON) of 95 for the new E20 petrol?
- A.To increase the fuel's calorific value and mileage
- B.To prevent engine knocking and potential damage✓ Correct Answer
- C.To make the fuel compatible with all vehicles manufactured before 2020
- D.To reduce the production cost of the blended fuel
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Explanation
The article directly states that the 'insistence on minimum RON 95 is to prevent engine damage.' It explains that RON measures a fuel's resistance to knocking (pre-ignition), which can cause power loss and damage. This is the core technical safeguard mentioned.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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Frequently Asked Questions
What are the important current affairs questions for 26 February 2026?▼
This page contains 160 current affairs questions from 26 February 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 26 February 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarimala cas…
- Q3. was the judge-wise majority in the Supreme Court's original 20…
- Q4. According to the article, what is the primary objective of the…
- Q5. According to the article, the nationwide HPV vaccination progr…
- Q6. Consider the following statements regarding India's HPV vaccin…
- Q7. According to the article, what was the estimated national scre…
- Q8. is a primary lesson from India's past experience with HPV vacc…
- Q9. constitutional body has been issued a notice by the Supreme Co…
- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q11. According to the Supreme Court's observations in the electoral…
- Q12. is the primary constitutional challenge identified by Justice …
- Q13. ministry is responsible for releasing the National Accounts St…
- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the new series of …
- Q15. is the new base year for the revised series of National Accoun…
- Q16. is a primary objective of incorporating GST data into the new …
- Q17. ministry/department is primarily responsible for releasing Ind…
- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding India's 2026 GDP r…
- Q19. According to the article, what weight does the Gross State Dom…
- Q20. is a primary fiscal implication for a state if its Gross State…
- Q21. Shashi Tharoor, the author of the article, is the Chairman of …
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget 2…
- Q23. is the total defence allocation for the Union Budget 2026-27 a…
- Q24. According to the article, what is the primary strategic ration…
- Q25. The NCERT, which was directed by the Supreme Court in the news…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q27. As per the Supreme Court's directive in the news, within what …
- Q28. was the primary legal ground cited by the Supreme Court bench …
- Q29. article of the US Constitution vests the power to lay and coll…
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the US Supreme Cou…
- Q31. was the final tariff rate imposed on Chinese goods, as mention…
- Q32. was the primary constitutional principle invoked by the US Sup…
- Q33. US government department conducted the countervailing duty inv…
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q35. is the total allocation for the defence budget in the Union Bu…
- Q36. is a primary strategic rationale, as discussed in the article,…
- Q37. The judgment discussed the 'Model Employer' doctrine. In the c…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Punjab and Har…
- Q39. According to the news article, on which date did the Punjab an…
- Q40. was the primary constitutional basis used by the Punjab and Ha…
- Q41. The shift in fiscal policy anchor discussed in the article was…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the fiscal policy …
- Q43. According to the article, what is the current approximate leve…
- Q44. is the primary rationale cited in the article for anchoring fi…
- Q45. Micron Technology, which is setting up India's first semicondu…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the semiconductor …
- Q47. is the exact investment amount announced for Micron Technology…
- Q48. is a key strategic objective of establishing Micron's ATMP pla…
- Q49. The Union Minister for which portfolio recently addressed the …
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the recent stateme…
- Q51. According to the Union I&B Minister, which of the following wa…
- Q52. was the primary rationale given by the I&B Minister for urging…
- Q53. autonomous body under the Ministry of Education is primarily r…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the NCERT textbook…
- Q55. According to the National Judicial Data cited in the NCERT tex…
- Q56. is the primary ethical concern raised in the article regarding…
- Q57. institute, under the Kerala Finance Department, conducted the …
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding Kerala's economy a…
- Q59. According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey cited in the art…
- Q60. is identified as a primary reason for the 'visible face of a m…
- Q61. The 'Bharat-VISTAAR' AI-powered tool, launched to assist farme…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the India AI Impac…
- Q63. According to the Union Budget 2026-27 mentioned in the article…
- Q64. is the primary objective of the 'MANAV' vision for AI, as unve…
- Q65. The recent statements on digital platform accountability and A…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the recent governm…
- Q67. At which industry event did Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw ma…
- Q68. is the primary objective behind the government's call for 'man…
- Q69. two Union Ministries filed the joint affidavit in the Supreme …
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q71. According to the article, for how many tribal families in Bine…
- Q72. is the primary legal implication of the Centre's submission to…
- Q73. The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), which propos…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the news article o…
- Q75. According to the CAQM panel report cited in the article, what …
- Q76. is a primary concern raised by carmakers regarding the propose…
- Q77. constitutional body's order was set aside by the Karnataka Hig…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka High…
- Q79. As per the Karnataka High Court guidelines, within how many wo…
- Q80. is the primary legal rationale provided by the Karnataka High …
- Q81. Under the PCPNDT Act, 1994, which authority is primarily empow…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
- Q83. In the Gurugram case discussed by the Supreme Court, what was …
- Q84. is the primary legal significance of the Supreme Court's obser…
- Q85. Under which Act was the National Green Tribunal (NGT) establis…
- Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the National Green…
- Q87. According to the investigation covering NGT orders from 2020 t…
- Q88. A significant number of citizen appeals to the NGT were dismis…
- Q89. Under which Act was the National Green Tribunal (NGT) establis…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the National Green…
- Q91. According to the news article, how many expert members appoint…
- Q92. is the primary governance concern highlighted by the appointme…
- Q93. US government department is responsible for initiating counter…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the US tariff impo…
- Q95. According to the article, what was the value of solar imports …
- Q96. was a key reason cited by the US Department of Commerce for im…
- Q97. of the following international organizations co-authored the r…
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the economic impac…
- Q99. According to the article, what is the estimated cost of post-w…
- Q100. A primary consequence of the high defence spending in Ukraine,…
- Q101. Indian ministry has prepared a draft 2030 roadmap for Carbon C…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Capture and…
- Q103. According to the article, what is India's committed target yea…
- Q104. is identified as the primary objective of promoting Carbon Cap…
- Q105. ministry is primarily responsible for the IndiaAI Mission that…
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding the news on Indian…
- Q107. According to the article, what is the estimated government sub…
- Q108. is a primary advantage of the Mixture of Experts (MoE) archite…
- Q109. constitutional body is responsible for conducting elections to…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha: …
- Q111. According to the article, how many Rajya Sabha seats are going…
- Q112. is the primary purpose of the 'open ballot' system used in Raj…
- Q113. apex government body publishes the Sustainable Development Goa…
- Q114. Consider the following statements regarding Tamil Nadu's econo…
- Q115. According to the article, what was Tamil Nadu's composite scor…
- Q116. The article highlights Tamil Nadu's 'dispersed development' mo…
- Q117. The writer of the article is associated with which national in…
- Q118. Consider the following statements regarding the AVGC sector an…
- Q119. According to the article, what is the estimated number of free…
- Q120. is a primary concern raised in the article regarding the AVGC …
- Q121. ministry is the nodal agency for formulating and implementing …
- Q122. Consider the following statements regarding the decline of Mao…
- Q123. According to the article, approximately how many kilometres of…
- Q124. is identified as the primary future challenge after the securi…
- Q125. High Court delivered the judgment discussed in the article reg…
- Q126. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
- Q127. many writ petitions filed by interfaith couples were allowed b…
- Q128. was the primary legal reasoning of the Allahabad High Court in…
- Q129. US government department awarded Anthropic a $200 million defe…
- Q130. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Anth…
- Q131. was the approximate number of coordinated prompt exchanges Ant…
- Q132. According to the article's analysis, what is a primary implica…
- Q133. As per the Supreme Court's Prakash Singh guidelines, which con…
- Q134. Consider the following statements regarding the DGP appointmen…
- Q135. As per the news, for how long has Gaurav Yadav been serving as…
- Q136. is the primary constitutional principle being tested by the Pu…
- Q137. of the following is a key military and security force of Iran,…
- Q138. Consider the following statements regarding the strategic dyna…
- Q139. According to the article, which specific event marked a turnin…
- Q140. is the primary strategic dilemma facing the United States in i…
- Q141. ministry has been allocated ₹1,39,289 crore in the Union Budge…
- Q142. Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget 2…
- Q143. is the percentage increase in the Ministry of Education's budg…
- Q144. According to the article, what is identified as the fundamenta…
- Q145. The India-Israel 'Special Strategic Partnership' discussions i…
- Q146. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel p…
- Q147. According to the news, on which date in 2026 did India and Isr…
- Q148. was a primary strategic reason cited by India for supporting t…
- Q149. The Supreme Court banned a textbook published by which autonom…
- Q150. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q151. For which class was the NCERT Social Science textbook that was…
- Q152. was the primary reason cited by the Supreme Court for banning …
- Q153. country acted as the mediator in the indirect nuclear talks be…
- Q154. Consider the following statements regarding the US-Iran nuclea…
- Q155. According to the article, which US naval asset was deployed to…
- Q156. is a primary objective of Iran, as stated in the news, for eng…
- Q157. The recent mandate for the sale of E20 petrol across India was…
- Q158. Consider the following statements regarding the government's m…
- Q159. According to the article, by how much has India saved in forei…
- Q160. is a key technical reason cited in the article for mandating a…