27 February 2026, Questions & Answers

116 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.

116 questions  ·  0 topics covered  ·  24 min revision

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This page contains 116 current affairs questions with answers from 27 February 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.

These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.

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27 February 2026, Questions with Answers

116 Qs
Q1.

Which ministry/department is primarily responsible for releasing India's GDP data and national accounts statistics?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.NITI Aayog
  • C.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is the nodal agency responsible for the compilation and release of national accounts statistics, including GDP data, in India.

Source: India's New GDP Series: Base Year 2022-23, FY26 Growth Upgraded to 7.6%, Economy Size Revised Downward →
Q2.

Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series released for India:

1. The new series revises the GDP growth estimate for the financial year 2025-26 (FY26) upward to 7.6%.

2. The new series has revised the nominal GDP (size of the economy) upward for the years 2023-24 to 2025-26.

3. The primary sector, including agriculture, is expected to see a significant slowdown in growth in FY26 as per the new estimates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, Banking
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states FY26 growth is upgraded to 7.6%. Statement 2 is incorrect because the nominal GDP has been revised downward, not upward. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the primary sector growth is expected to slow to 2.8% in FY26.

Source: India's New GDP Series: Base Year 2022-23, FY26 Growth Upgraded to 7.6%, Economy Size Revised Downward →
Q3.

What is the new base year adopted for the recently released GDP series?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2011-12
  • B.2015-16
  • C.2020-21
  • D.2022-23✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the new GDP series has an updated base year of 2022-23, replacing the earlier base year of 2011-12.

Source: India's New GDP Series: Base Year 2022-23, FY26 Growth Upgraded to 7.6%, Economy Size Revised Downward →
Q4.

What is a key fiscal implication of the downward revision of nominal GDP in the new series?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.It will lower the fiscal deficit-to-GDP ratio.
  • B.It will make the government's debt reduction target easier to achieve.
  • C.It will increase the fiscal deficit-to-GDP and debt-to-GDP ratios.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It will have no impact on fiscal ratios as they are based on real GDP.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Fiscal ratios use nominal GDP as the denominator. A downward revision in nominal GDP means the same fiscal deficit or debt amount will constitute a larger percentage of GDP, thereby increasing these ratios and making fiscal consolidation more challenging.

Source: India's New GDP Series: Base Year 2022-23, FY26 Growth Upgraded to 7.6%, Economy Size Revised Downward →
Q5.

Which independent policy research institution is mentioned in the article for its analysis on India's mineral processing capabilities?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog
  • B.Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
  • D.Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly cites analysis by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW) regarding India's existing capabilities to process certain critical minerals to high purity levels.

Source: India Launches ₹16,300 Cr National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) with List of 30 Minerals →
Q6.

Consider the following statements regarding India's critical minerals strategy:

1. The National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) has a budgetary outlay of ₹16,300 crore.

2. India's list of critical minerals currently includes 20 minerals.

3. The Budget 2026 has made exploration expenditure for nine critical minerals eligible for tax deductions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article which mentions the NCMM outlay as ₹16,300 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states India has a list of 30 critical minerals, not 20. Statement 3 is correct as the Budget strengthens project viability by making exploration expenditure for nine minerals tax-deductible.

Source: India Launches ₹16,300 Cr National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) with List of 30 Minerals →
Q7.

What is the target number of exploration projects set by the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) to be achieved by FY2031?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.800 projects
  • B.1,000 projects
  • C.1,200 projects✓ Correct Answer
  • D.1,500 projects
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the NCMM targets 1,200 exploration projects by the financial year 2031 (FY2031).

Source: India Launches ₹16,300 Cr National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) with List of 30 Minerals →
Q8.

According to the article, what is identified as the 'most decisive industrial policy lever' for strengthening India's critical minerals ecosystem?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Increasing import duties on raw minerals
  • B.Providing tax deductions for exploration
  • C.Creating assured domestic demand for processed minerals✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Signing more free trade agreements
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Demand creation remains the most decisive industrial policy lever.' It argues that boosting deployment of locally-made EVs, batteries, solar, and wind would create powerful third-order effects, strengthening the entire processing, mining, and exploration ecosystem.

Source: India Launches ₹16,300 Cr National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) with List of 30 Minerals →
Q9.

Which Ministry is responsible for releasing the GDP estimates and revising the GDP series in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.NITI Aayog
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) releases the advance estimates of GDP. It is the nodal ministry for all official statistical data in India.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Series to 2022-23 Base Year, Projects FY26 Growth at 7.6% Using Double-Deflation Method →
Q10.

Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series with 2022-23 as base year:

1. It projects India's GDP growth for 2025-26 (FY26) at 7.6%.

2. It continues to use the single-deflator method for calculating real Gross Value Added (GVA).

3. A complete 'back series' reconciling data with the new methodology is expected to be released by December 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the FY26 growth estimate is 7.6%. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article explicitly mentions the new series does NOT use the single-deflator method and instead uses double-deflation. Statement 3 is correct as MoSPI stated the back series is expected by December 2026.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Series to 2022-23 Base Year, Projects FY26 Growth at 7.6% Using Double-Deflation Method →
Q11.

According to the second advance estimates under the new GDP series, what is the revised GDP growth rate for the financial year 2023-24?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.6.5%
  • B.7.1%
  • C.7.2%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.9.2%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that under the new series, the GDP growth for 2023-24 has been revised to 7.2%, down from 9.2% under the old series. 9.2% is the old figure, a potential distractor.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Series to 2022-23 Base Year, Projects FY26 Growth at 7.6% Using Double-Deflation Method →
Q12.

What is a primary objective of shifting from the single-deflator method to the double-deflation method in the new GDP series, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.To simplify the calculation process for GDP estimation
  • B.To overstate economic growth during periods of high inflation
  • C.To provide a more accurate measurement of real GDP growth by separately accounting for input and output price changes✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align the GDP calculation with the fiscal year cycle
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the single-deflator method could lead to growth being overstated when commodity prices were falling or not rising as fast as consumer prices. Double-deflation, which adjusts inputs and outputs by their respective inflation rates, allows for more accurate measurement of real GDP growth.

Source: MoSPI Revises GDP Series to 2022-23 Base Year, Projects FY26 Growth at 7.6% Using Double-Deflation Method →
Q13.

The 'One Country, Two Systems' framework, mentioned in the context of Hong Kong, is a principle originally associated with which Chinese leader?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Mao Zedong
  • B.Deng Xiaoping✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Jiang Zemin
  • D.Hu Jintao
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The 'One Country, Two Systems' principle was formulated by Deng Xiaoping as part of China's policy for the peaceful reunification with Taiwan, Hong Kong, and Macau. It was implemented for Hong Kong's handover from Britain in 1997.

Source: Hong Kong National Security Law 2020: 260 Arrests, 76 Convictions Under Secession, Subversion, Terrorism, Collusion Charges →
Q14.

Consider the following statements regarding the Hong Kong National Security Law (NSL):

1. It was enacted by China in June 2020.

2. It criminalizes acts of secession, subversion, terrorism, and collusion with external forces.

3. According to the article, over 500 people have been convicted under this law since its implementation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the NSL was passed in June 2020. Statement 2 is correct as the article lists these four crimes. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states '76 convicted', not 'over 500'. Hence, option C is correct.

Source: Hong Kong National Security Law 2020: 260 Arrests, 76 Convictions Under Secession, Subversion, Terrorism, Collusion Charges →
Q15.

According to the article, approximately how many people have been arrested under the Hong Kong National Security Law (NSL)?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Around 100
  • B.Around 260✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Around 400
  • D.Around 550
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Data show that around 260 people have been arrested under the NSL'. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the provided content.

Source: Hong Kong National Security Law 2020: 260 Arrests, 76 Convictions Under Secession, Subversion, Terrorism, Collusion Charges →
Q16.

What was a primary consequence of the Hong Kong National Security Law, as discussed in the article?

MediumUPSC
  • A.It led to the expansion of democratic voting rights for Hong Kong residents.
  • B.It resulted in the complete economic integration of Hong Kong with mainland China.
  • C.It fundamentally altered Hong Kong's political, media, and judicial landscape by curbing dissent.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It triggered a new wave of pro-democracy protests that succeeded in repealing the law.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's central theme is the transformative impact of the NSL. It states the law 'has fundamentally altered Hong Kong’s political, media, and judicial landscape' and details arrests, media shutdowns, and the erosion of political space. The other options are not supported by the article's content.

Source: Hong Kong National Security Law 2020: 260 Arrests, 76 Convictions Under Secession, Subversion, Terrorism, Collusion Charges →
Q17.

Under which article of the Constitution was the original petition filed that led to the Supreme Court's directions on Open Prisons?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14
  • B.Article 19
  • C.Article 21
  • D.Article 32✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the petition was 'instituted under Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies) in 2020.' Article 32 allows citizens to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.

Source: Supreme Court Directs 10 States to Establish Open Prisons Within 3 Months to Address 120.8% Prison Overcrowding →
Q18.

Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's directions on Open Correctional Institutions (OCIs):

1. The court noted that Indian prisons are operating at a cumulative occupancy level of 120.8%.

2. The court directed that security concerns shall generally not be made a ground to deny women prisoners access to OCI facilities.

3. The court cited the Rajasthan Model, where the per-prisoner daily expenditure in a closed prison is approximately half of that in an open prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions '120.8 per cent' occupancy. Statement 2 is correct as per the court's direction on women prisoners. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article states the cost in a closed prison (Rs 333.12) is much higher than in an open prison (Rs 49.60), not half.

Source: Supreme Court Directs 10 States to Establish Open Prisons Within 3 Months to Address 120.8% Prison Overcrowding →
Q19.

According to the article, what is the approximate per-prisoner daily expenditure in an open prison in Rajasthan, as cited by the Supreme Court?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Rs 49.60✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Rs 120.80
  • C.Rs 250.00
  • D.Rs 333.12
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'the per-prisoner daily expenditure in a closed prison in Rajasthan is approximately Rs 333.12, whereas in an open prison, it is only Rs 49.60.' Option D is the cost for a closed prison.

Source: Supreme Court Directs 10 States to Establish Open Prisons Within 3 Months to Address 120.8% Prison Overcrowding →
Q20.

What was the primary constitutional rationale provided by the Supreme Court for expanding Open Correctional Institutions (OCIs)?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the fiscal burden on state governments
  • B.To uphold the right to dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To implement the recommendations of the Model Prison Manual 2016
  • D.To decentralize prison administration to local bodies
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article emphasizes that 'the top court emphasised that the right to dignity under Article 21 extends beyond prison gates' and that OCIs are a 'constitutionally aligned' solution. While fiscal benefits (Option A) were noted, they were not the primary constitutional rationale.

Source: Supreme Court Directs 10 States to Establish Open Prisons Within 3 Months to Address 120.8% Prison Overcrowding →
Q21.

Which central agency investigated the case against the Sri Lankan national, as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
  • B.National Investigation Agency (NIA)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
  • D.Intelligence Bureau (IB)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the National Investigation Agency (NIA) alleged that the accused later joined hands with others to revive the banned LTTE outfit in India and Sri Lanka. The NIA is the central counter-terrorism agency.

Source: Kerala HC Grants Bail to LTTE Member Under UAPA, Says Article 21 Right to Speedy Trial Applies to Non-Citizens →
Q22.

Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Court judgment:

1. The court held that the right to speedy trial under Article 21 is applicable only to citizens of India.

2. The court stated that the stringent bail provisions under Section 43-D(5) of UAPA place a complete embargo on granting bail.

3. The accused had been in custody for over four years without the trial commencing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) Both 2 and 3
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The court held that Article 21 applies to 'all persons,' not just citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court rejected the contention that Section 43-D(7) of UAPA (not 43-D(5)) places a complete embargo on granting bail. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the appellant underwent incarceration for more than four years and four months.

Source: Kerala HC Grants Bail to LTTE Member Under UAPA, Says Article 21 Right to Speedy Trial Applies to Non-Citizens →
Q23.

For how long had the Sri Lankan national been in custody before the Kerala High Court granted bail, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.More than 2 years
  • B.More than 3 years
  • C.More than 4 years and 4 months✓ Correct Answer
  • D.More than 5 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states: "The appellant is undergoing incarceration for a period of more than four years and four months" and that he has been in custody since October 5, 2021. The other options are close but incorrect distractors.

Source: Kerala HC Grants Bail to LTTE Member Under UAPA, Says Article 21 Right to Speedy Trial Applies to Non-Citizens →
Q24.

What was the primary legal rationale used by the Kerala High Court to grant bail, overriding the strict provisions of the UAPA?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.The accused was a foreign national entitled to diplomatic protection.
  • B.The constitutional right to speedy trial under Article 21 takes precedence over statutory restrictions.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The evidence against the accused was found to be weak and insufficient.
  • D.The trial court had misapplied the provisions of the NDPS Act.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core of the judgment, as stated in the article, is that "the constitutional right of speedy trial will have precedence over the strict provisions" of the UAPA. The court emphasized that by the passage of time, the effect of statutory provisions must be diluted to protect constitutional rights under Article 21.

Source: Kerala HC Grants Bail to LTTE Member Under UAPA, Says Article 21 Right to Speedy Trial Applies to Non-Citizens →
Q25.

Which ministry is responsible for releasing the new series of national income accounts (GDP estimates) in India?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • D.Reserve Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the new GDP series. The Central Statistics Office (CSO), which compiles GDP estimates, operates under MoSPI.

Source: MoSPI Shifts GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Revises FY26 Growth to 7.6% with Double-Deflation Method →
Q26.

Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series:

1. The new GDP series shifts the base year from 2011-12 to 2023-24.

2. The new series incorporates data from GST and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS).

3. The double-deflation method has been adopted to calculate Gross Value Added (GVA) for all sectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The new base year is 2022-23, not 2023-24. Statement 2 is correct: The article mentions incorporation of data from GST and PLFS. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the new series uses double-deflation for GVA calculation across sectors, replacing the single-deflator method.

Source: MoSPI Shifts GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Revises FY26 Growth to 7.6% with Double-Deflation Method →
Q27.

According to the First Advance Estimates for FY 2025-26 released with the new base year, what is the revised Real GDP Growth rate?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.7.1%
  • B.7.2%
  • C.7.6%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.8.4%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's 'Key takeaways' section clearly states '7.6% Real GDP Growth — FY 2025-26'. The option 7.1% refers to FY 2024-25 growth, and 8.4% is the Q2 FY26 growth rate.

Source: MoSPI Shifts GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Revises FY26 Growth to 7.6% with Double-Deflation Method →
Q28.

What is the primary rationale cited for selecting the year 2022-23 as the new base year for GDP calculation?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.It was the year India became a $5 trillion economy.
  • B.It is the most recent 'normal' year after the disruptions of the COVID-19 pandemic.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It aligns with the beginning of a new Five-Year Plan cycle.
  • D.It marks the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the rationale: 'The rationale for selecting the year 2022-23 as the new base is because it is the most recent "normal" year after the disruptions of 2019-2021.' The other options, while plausible, are not mentioned in the provided text.

Source: MoSPI Shifts GDP Base Year to 2022-23, Revises FY26 Growth to 7.6% with Double-Deflation Method →
Q29.

Which ministry/department is responsible for releasing India's official GDP data and national accounts statistics?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Reserve Bank of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the new GDP series. MoSPI is the nodal agency for the collection, compilation, and dissemination of official statistical data in India, including GDP estimates.

Source: New GDP Series Revises FY27 Growth Forecast to 7-7.4% and Past Data, Highlights Investment Dynamism →
Q30.

Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series and growth forecasts mentioned in the article:

1. The Chief Economic Advisor revised the FY27 GDP growth forecast to a range of 7-7.4%.

2. The new GDP series has revised the growth rate for FY24 (2023-24) upwards from the previous estimate.

3. The share of Gross Fixed Capital Formation in GDP has remained around 32% since 2022-23.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: CEA Nageswaran raised the FY27 forecast to 7-7.4%. Statement 2 is incorrect: FY24 growth was revised down sharply to 7.2% from 9.2% under the old series, not upwards. Statement 3 is correct: The article states the share of GFCF has remained around 32% of GDP since 2022-23.

Source: New GDP Series Revises FY27 Growth Forecast to 7-7.4% and Past Data, Highlights Investment Dynamism →
Q31.

According to the second advance estimate released by MoSPI, what is the projected real GDP growth rate for India in 2025-26 (FY26)?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.7.1%
  • B.7.3%
  • C.7.4%
  • D.7.6%✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the second advance estimate for the current fiscal (2025-26) shows growth at 7.6%. The other options are close distractors: 7.1% is the revised FY25 growth, 7.4% was the first advance estimate under the old series, and 7.3% is the required Q4 growth to achieve the annual 7.6%.

Source: New GDP Series Revises FY27 Growth Forecast to 7-7.4% and Past Data, Highlights Investment Dynamism →
Q32.

What does the data on investment by 'unincorporated enterprises', as highlighted by the CEA, primarily indicate about the Indian economy?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.A decline in formal sector investment.
  • B.Weakness in the private investment cycle.
  • C.Dynamism and resilience in the informal economy.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over-reliance on government capital expenditure.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The CEA argued that the data showing unincorporated enterprises maintaining over 10% growth in investment indicates 'dynamism' outside the formal economy. This suggests strength and activity in the informal sector, countering narratives of a weak private investment cycle.

Source: New GDP Series Revises FY27 Growth Forecast to 7-7.4% and Past Data, Highlights Investment Dynamism →
Q33.

The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, discussed by the Education Minister, falls under the purview of which Ministry?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Human Resource Development
  • B.Ministry of Education✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
  • D.Ministry of Women and Child Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Ministry of Education is responsible for the formulation and implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The Ministry of Human Resource Development was renamed as the Ministry of Education in 2020.

Source: NEP 2020 Focuses on Mother Tongue, Targets 50% GER by 2035 and 2047 Developed Economy Goal →
Q34.

Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 as discussed in the article:

1. The policy recommends foundational education in the mother tongue until Grade 5.

2. It sets a target to achieve a Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) of 50% in higher education by the year 2030.

3. The policy was formulated after a gap of 34 years since the previous education policy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: NEP clearly states education in early stages should be in the mother tongue. Statement 2 is incorrect; the target year for 50% GER in higher education is 2035, not 2030. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions NEP 2020 came after a 34-year gap.

Source: NEP 2020 Focuses on Mother Tongue, Targets 50% GER by 2035 and 2047 Developed Economy Goal →
Q35.

According to the Union Education Minister, what is the targeted Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education to be achieved by 2035?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.30%
  • B.40%
  • C.50%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.60%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: "we have set a target to increase the Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education to 50 per cent by 2035." The other options are plausible distractors but not the specific target mentioned.

Source: NEP 2020 Focuses on Mother Tongue, Targets 50% GER by 2035 and 2047 Developed Economy Goal →
Q36.

What is the primary rationale given by the Education Minister for emphasizing education in the mother tongue during early schooling as per NEP 2020?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.To reduce the cost of printing textbooks in multiple languages.
  • B.To promote national integration through a common language.
  • C.To develop critical thinking abilities in children effectively.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.To align with the linguistic policies of the United Nations.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Minister states: "Up to the fifth grade, the medium of instruction should be the student’s mother tongue. Only then can critical thinking develop." This pedagogical reason is central to the NEP's approach, unlike the other options which are not supported by the article's content.

Source: NEP 2020 Focuses on Mother Tongue, Targets 50% GER by 2035 and 2047 Developed Economy Goal →
Q37.

Which Ministry is responsible for implementing the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Urban Development
  • D.Ministry of Panchayati Raj
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the writer is the Secretary of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, indicating it is the nodal ministry for the Urban Challenge Fund.

Source: Urban Challenge Fund: ₹1 Lakh Crore Central Outlay to Catalyse ₹4 Lakh Crore Investment for City Reforms FY 2025-26 to 2030-31 →
Q38.

Consider the following statements regarding the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF):

1. The central assistance outlay for UCF is ₹1 lakh crore for the period FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31.

2. Central assistance under UCF is capped at 50% of the project cost, with the remaining to be raised from market sources.

3. The Credit Repayment Guarantee Scheme of ₹5,000 crore under UCF is specifically targeted at all million-plus cities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because central assistance is capped at 25%, not 50%, and cities must raise at least 50% from market sources. Statement 3 is incorrect because the guarantee scheme is targeted at smaller urban local bodies (population below 1 lakh) and cities in hilly/NE states, not all million-plus cities.

Source: Urban Challenge Fund: ₹1 Lakh Crore Central Outlay to Catalyse ₹4 Lakh Crore Investment for City Reforms FY 2025-26 to 2030-31 →
Q39.

What is the total investment that the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) is designed to catalyze, according to the article?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.₹1 lakh crore
  • B.₹2 lakh crore
  • C.₹4 lakh crore✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹5 lakh crore
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that with a central assistance outlay of ₹1 lakh crore, the UCF is 'expected to catalyse nearly Rs 4 lakh crore of total investment'.

Source: Urban Challenge Fund: ₹1 Lakh Crore Central Outlay to Catalyse ₹4 Lakh Crore Investment for City Reforms FY 2025-26 to 2030-31 →
Q40.

What is the primary objective of structuring the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) with a mandatory market financing component?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To reduce the fiscal burden on the central government exclusively
  • B.To promote urban infrastructure projects that are bankable and revenue-backed✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To ensure all projects are completed within the specified five-year period
  • D.To prioritize funding for projects in metropolitan cities only
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that requiring cities to mobilize at least 50% from market sources 'signals that urban infrastructure must increasingly access capital markets through bankable, revenue-backed projects.' This is the core objective of the financing design.

Source: Urban Challenge Fund: ₹1 Lakh Crore Central Outlay to Catalyse ₹4 Lakh Crore Investment for City Reforms FY 2025-26 to 2030-31 →
Q41.

Who heads the Supreme Court collegium responsible for recommending judicial appointments and transfers?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The President of India
  • B.The Chief Justice of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Union Minister of Law and Justice
  • D.The Attorney General of India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the collegium system, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) heads the Supreme Court collegium. The article explicitly mentions the collegium was headed by CJI Surya Kant. The President makes the formal appointment based on the collegium's recommendation.

Source: SC Collegium Announces New Policy for Transfer of High Court CJs Two Months Before Vacancy Arises →
Q42.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme Court collegium decision:

1. The collegium has mandated a six-month advance transfer for judges proposed as High Court Chief Justices.

2. The policy aims to allow the judge to become conversant with the affairs of the new High Court before assuming charge.

3. Following this policy, the collegium recommended the transfer of Justice Lisa Gill to the Madras High Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The article states the advance period is 'preferably two months', not six months. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's quote: 'so that the judge... becomes well conversant with the affairs of that High Court'. Statement 3 is incorrect; Justice Lisa Gill was transferred to the Andhra Pradesh High Court, not Madras.

Source: SC Collegium Announces New Policy for Transfer of High Court CJs Two Months Before Vacancy Arises →
Q43.

According to the new Supreme Court collegium policy, what is the recommended advance period for transferring a judge proposed to be a High Court Chief Justice?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.One month
  • B.Two months✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Three months
  • D.Six months
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the policy decision is to transfer a judge 'preferably two months before the vacancy arises'. This is a factual data point directly from the source.

Source: SC Collegium Announces New Policy for Transfer of High Court CJs Two Months Before Vacancy Arises →
Q44.

What is the primary objective of the Supreme Court collegium's new policy on transferring future High Court Chief Justices in advance?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To reduce the overall number of transfers in the higher judiciary.
  • B.To strengthen the efficiency and quality of administration of justice.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To decentralize the power of the collegium to individual High Courts.
  • D.To align judicial appointments with the recommendations of the state government.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the collegium's statement: 'The collegium has taken a policy decision that in order to strengthen the efficiency and quality of administration of justice...'. The other options are not mentioned as objectives in the provided article.

Source: SC Collegium Announces New Policy for Transfer of High Court CJs Two Months Before Vacancy Arises →
Q45.

Under which Act is the Child Welfare Committee (CWC), mentioned in the article in relation to placing a minor in a Children's Home, constituted?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
  • B.The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
  • D.The Indian Penal Code, 1860
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Child Welfare Committee (CWC) is a statutory body constituted under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015. It deals with children in need of care and protection. While POCSO cases may involve CWC, the committee itself is established under the JJ Act.

Source: POCSO Act 2012 Mandatory 7-Year Sentence, SC Urges 'Romeo & Juliet' Clause for Consensual Adolescent Sex →
Q46.

Consider the following statements regarding the POCSO Act as discussed in the article:

1. The Act defines a 'child' as any person below the age of 18 years.

2. A 'Romeo and Juliet' clause, if introduced, would exempt all sexual activity involving minors from prosecution.

3. Section 19 of the Act makes it mandatory for doctors to report cases of sexual offences against children.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the POCSO Act, 2012, defines a child as a person below 18. Statement 2 is incorrect; the proposed 'Romeo and Juliet' clause would only exempt consensual sexual activity between adolescents close in age, not all activity. Statement 3 is correct; Section 19 mandates reporting by anyone, including doctors, aware of a POCSO offence.

Source: POCSO Act 2012 Mandatory 7-Year Sentence, SC Urges 'Romeo & Juliet' Clause for Consensual Adolescent Sex →
Q47.

According to the 2022 Enfold study analysing POCSO judgments cited in the article, what percentage of the cases involved 'romantic' relationships between consenting adolescents?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.18.5%
  • B.24.3%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.31.7%
  • D.42.1%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states that the Enfold study of 7,064 POCSO judgments found that 24.3% of cases involved 'romantic' relationships between consenting adolescents. This is a key data point highlighting the scale of the unintended application of the law.

Source: POCSO Act 2012 Mandatory 7-Year Sentence, SC Urges 'Romeo & Juliet' Clause for Consensual Adolescent Sex →
Q48.

What is a primary criticism, as highlighted in the article, of the mandatory reporting requirement under Section 19 of the POCSO Act?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.It increases the workload of the police and judiciary.
  • B.It deters adolescents from seeking confidential sexual and reproductive healthcare.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It leads to false accusations against medical practitioners.
  • D.It conflicts with the provisions of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that Section 19's mandate, which requires reporting offences to the police, restricts adolescents' confidential access to healthcare. Minors fearing police involvement may avoid seeking medical help for issues like pregnancy, pushing them towards unsafe practices. This is cited as a key ethical and public health concern.

Source: POCSO Act 2012 Mandatory 7-Year Sentence, SC Urges 'Romeo & Juliet' Clause for Consensual Adolescent Sex →
Q49.

Which High Court recently allowed WhatsApp chats as evidence in a matrimonial dispute under Section 14 of the Family Courts Act?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Delhi High Court
  • B.Bombay High Court
  • C.Allahabad High Court✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Madras High Court
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Allahabad High Court, presided over by Justice Madan Pal Singh, delivered this judgment. This is a factual recall question.

Source: Allahabad HC Allows WhatsApp Chats as Adultery Evidence Under Section 14, Family Courts Act, Sets Aside ₹10k Maintenance Order →
Q50.

Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahabad High Court judgment:

1. The court allowed WhatsApp chats as evidence of adultery without requiring a certificate under Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act.

2. The judgment was delivered while hearing a criminal revision plea against a maintenance order passed under Section 125 of the CrPC.

3. The High Court directed the trial court to consider the evidence in light of Section 12 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the HC allowed WhatsApp chats citing Section 14 of the Family Courts Act. Statement 2 is correct as the plea was against a maintenance order under CrPC Section 125. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states the HC directed consideration 'in light of Section 14 of the Family Courts Act', not Section 12 of the DV Act.

Source: Allahabad HC Allows WhatsApp Chats as Adultery Evidence Under Section 14, Family Courts Act, Sets Aside ₹10k Maintenance Order →
Q51.

What was the monthly maintenance amount that the Allahabad High Court set aside in its recent judgment?

MediumSSC, State PSC
  • A.₹5,000
  • B.₹7,500
  • C.₹10,000✓ Correct Answer
  • D.₹12,500
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states the family court had directed the husband to pay a maintenance of ₹10,000 per month, which the High Court set aside. This is a direct data point.

Source: Allahabad HC Allows WhatsApp Chats as Adultery Evidence Under Section 14, Family Courts Act, Sets Aside ₹10k Maintenance Order →
Q52.

What is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad High Court's reference to Section 14 of the Family Courts Act in this judgment?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It mandates the compulsory recording of evidence in all family court proceedings.
  • B.It empowers Family Courts to receive evidence they deem relevant, even if not admissible under the Indian Evidence Act.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It transfers all maintenance cases from magistrate courts to Family Courts.
  • D.It introduces mandatory mediation before trial in all matrimonial disputes.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Section 14 of the Family Courts Act, as highlighted in the article, allows Family Courts to receive any report or document that may assist it, regardless of its admissibility under the Evidence Act. This was the core reasoning for admitting the WhatsApp chats without a Section 65B certificate.

Source: Allahabad HC Allows WhatsApp Chats as Adultery Evidence Under Section 14, Family Courts Act, Sets Aside ₹10k Maintenance Order →
Q53.

The right to hold a passport and travel abroad has been declared by the Delhi High Court as part of which fundamental right under the Indian Constitution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Article 14 (Right to Equality)
  • B.Article 19 (Right to Freedom)
  • C.Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Article 22 (Protection against Arrest and Detention)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Delhi High Court judgment explicitly states that the right to hold a passport and travel abroad is an 'integral facet of the right to personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.'

Source: Delhi HC Affirms Passport & Travel Abroad as Integral to Article 21; Sets Aside Impounding Order Citing 2019 MEA Memo →
Q54.

Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court judgment on passport impounding:

1. The Court held that the right to travel abroad is a part of the fundamental right to personal liberty under Article 21.

2. The Court ruled that the mere registration of an FIR is sufficient grounds for the authorities to impound a passport under the Passport Act, 1967.

3. The judgment relied on a 2019 Office Memorandum issued by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the Court clarified, based on the 2019 MEA memo, that mere FIR registration does not amount to pendency unless a court takes cognisance. Statement 3 is correct as the petitioner's counsel cited the 2019 MEA memorandum, which the Court used in its reasoning.

Source: Delhi HC Affirms Passport & Travel Abroad as Integral to Article 21; Sets Aside Impounding Order Citing 2019 MEA Memo →
Q55.

According to the news, on which date did the authorities pass the order impounding the petitioner's passport?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.October 2024
  • B.January 17, 2025✓ Correct Answer
  • C.February 2025
  • D.March 25, 2025
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The order impounding the petitioner's passport was passed by the authorities on January 17, 2025.' October 2024 is when the petitioner applied for renewal. February 2025 is when the court took cognisance. March 25, 2025, is when the appellate authority rejected the appeal.

Source: Delhi HC Affirms Passport & Travel Abroad as Integral to Article 21; Sets Aside Impounding Order Citing 2019 MEA Memo →
Q56.

What was the primary legal ground on which the Delhi High Court set aside the passport impounding order in the mentioned case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The petitioner was not given a fair hearing by the authorities.
  • B.The authorities acted beyond their jurisdiction under the Passport Act.
  • C.The impounding was based on an FIR for which court cognisance was taken after the passport renewal application.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The petitioner had diplomatic immunity which the authorities ignored.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Court observed that the petitioner applied for renewal in October 2024, while cognisance of the offence was taken by the court only in February 2025, which was after the impounding order (January 2025). Since the 2019 MEA memo states that criminal proceedings are pending only upon court cognisance, the grounds for impounding did not exist at the time of the renewal application.

Source: Delhi HC Affirms Passport & Travel Abroad as Integral to Article 21; Sets Aside Impounding Order Citing 2019 MEA Memo →
Q57.

The Durand Line agreement of 1893 was signed between a British diplomat and the ruler of which country?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Emir of Afghanistan✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Maharaja of Jammu & Kashmir
  • C.Shah of Iran
  • D.Amir of Bukhara
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the Durand Line border was established in 1893 between Mortimer Durand, a British diplomat, and Abdur Rahman Khan, the Emir of Afghanistan.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan Relations Deteriorate into 'Open War' Over Durand Line, TTP Safe Havens, and India-Taliban Ties →
Q58.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pakistan-Afghanistan conflict as per the news article:

1. Pakistan carried out air strikes on Kabul and Kandahar in February 2026.

2. The Afghan Taliban has officially recognised the Durand Line as the international border.

3. India has formally recognised the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan under the Taliban.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article explicitly states 'The Taliban, too, have refused to recognise the boundary'. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article mentions 'Though India has not formally recognised the Taliban'.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan Relations Deteriorate into 'Open War' Over Durand Line, TTP Safe Havens, and India-Taliban Ties →
Q59.

According to the Pak Institute for Peace Studies data mentioned in the article, approximately how many people were killed in TTP attacks across Pakistan in the year preceding the report?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About 250
  • B.At least 400✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Over 600
  • D.Nearly 1000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article directly quotes the Pak Institute for Peace Studies, stating 'at least 400 people, most of them security personnel, were killed in TTP attacks across Pakistan last year'.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan Relations Deteriorate into 'Open War' Over Durand Line, TTP Safe Havens, and India-Taliban Ties →
Q60.

What was Pakistan's primary strategic objective in supporting the Afghan Taliban before their return to power in 2021, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To promote Wahhabi Islam in the region
  • B.To gain 'strategic depth' against India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To secure access to Central Asian energy resources
  • D.To eliminate the Islamic State's Khorasan Province (ISKP)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that Pakistan, 'wary of India's growing influence in Afghanistan', viewed the Taliban as a vehicle for extending its influence and believed their return would restore its 'strategic depth' in South-Central Asia.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan Relations Deteriorate into 'Open War' Over Durand Line, TTP Safe Havens, and India-Taliban Ties →
Q61.

Which constitutional body initiated a suo motu case regarding the NCERT textbook content on judicial corruption?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Parliament of India
  • B.The Supreme Court of India✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
  • D.The Ministry of Education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states that the Supreme Court registered a suo motu case after the contents of the NCERT Class 8 textbook were reported. The Supreme Court has the power to take up cases on its own motion in matters of public importance.

Source: India-Israel Elevate Ties to 'Special Strategic Partnership', Sign 17 Pacts Including Critical Tech Pact; SC Bans NCERT Book on Judicial Corruption →
Q62.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel relationship as per the news article:

1. The two sides elevated their ties from a 'Strategic Partnership' established in 2017 to a 'Special Strategic Partnership for Peace, Innovation and Prosperity'.

2. A key outcome was the decision to establish a 'Critical and Emerging Technologies Partnership', which will be led by the Foreign Ministers of both countries.

3. The joint statement from the leaders strongly condemned terrorism in all its forms, including cross-border terrorism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions the elevation from the 2017 Strategic Partnership. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article states the Critical and Emerging Technologies partnership will be led by the National Security Advisors (NSAs), not the Foreign Ministers. Statement 3 is correct as the joint statement unequivocally condemned terrorism, including cross-border terrorism.

Source: India-Israel Elevate Ties to 'Special Strategic Partnership', Sign 17 Pacts Including Critical Tech Pact; SC Bans NCERT Book on Judicial Corruption →
Q63.

According to the news, what is the quota for Indian workers in Israel agreed upon during the recent bilateral talks?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Up to 25,000 workers over the next 3 years
  • B.Up to 50,000 workers over the next 5 years✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Up to 75,000 workers over the next 7 years
  • D.Up to 1,00,000 workers over the next 10 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions 'quota of up to 50,000 Indian workers over the next five years' as one of the 27 outcomes from the bilateral meeting. This is a concrete data point for factual recall.

Source: India-Israel Elevate Ties to 'Special Strategic Partnership', Sign 17 Pacts Including Critical Tech Pact; SC Bans NCERT Book on Judicial Corruption →
Q64.

What is the primary significance of the Centre's affidavit in the Supreme Court regarding the Forest Rights Act (FRA) and Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G), as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It mandates that all forest land must be cleared for PMAY-G housing.
  • B.It states that prior approval under the Forest (Conservation) Act is not required if individual forest rights are recognized under FRA.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It proposes the relocation of all PVTGs from forest areas to urban settlements.
  • D.It declares PMAY-G as unconstitutional when implemented on forest land.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that the Centre submitted to the Supreme Court that once individual forest rights are recognized under the FRA, 2006, the need for prior approval from the Union government under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, shall not arise. This clarifies the legal convergence for housing schemes like PMAY-G on forest land for tribal communities.

Source: India-Israel Elevate Ties to 'Special Strategic Partnership', Sign 17 Pacts Including Critical Tech Pact; SC Bans NCERT Book on Judicial Corruption →
Q65.

Which frontline worker cadre, mentioned in the article, is primarily associated with the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme?

EasyUPSC, MPSC
  • A.ASHA Worker
  • B.Anganwadi Worker✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM)
  • D.Multipurpose Health Worker (MPHW)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Anganwadi Workers are community-based frontline workers under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, responsible for health, nutrition, and preschool education. ASHA workers are under the National Health Mission, ANMs and MPHWs are different categories of health staff.

Source: Maharashtra Launches HPV Vaccine Drive Targeting 9.84 Lakh 14-Year-Old Girls Under Nationwide Immunisation Programme →
Q66.

Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccination drive in Maharashtra:

1. The campaign uses the quadrivalent HPV vaccine Gardasil-4, which protects against four strains including types 16 and 18.

2. The vaccination is mandatory for all 14-year-old girls in the state and does not require parental consent.

3. All registrations and vaccination certificates for the drive are managed digitally through the government's U-WIN portal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • C.(C) Only 2 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article mentions Gardasil-4 protects against four strains, including 16 and 18. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states the vaccination is 'voluntary and parental consent is required'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the U-WIN portal is used for digital registration and certification.

Source: Maharashtra Launches HPV Vaccine Drive Targeting 9.84 Lakh 14-Year-Old Girls Under Nationwide Immunisation Programme →
Q67.

According to the article, what is the total number of adolescent girls targeted for vaccination in Maharashtra's HPV drive?

EasyUPSC Prelims, MPSC
  • A.8.47 lakh
  • B.9.47 lakh
  • C.9.84 lakh✓ Correct Answer
  • D.10.5 lakh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's headline and first paragraph explicitly state the target is '9.84 lakh 14-year-old girls'. The 9.47 lakh figure is the number of doses procured, which is a close distractor.

Source: Maharashtra Launches HPV Vaccine Drive Targeting 9.84 Lakh 14-Year-Old Girls Under Nationwide Immunisation Programme →
Q68.

What is the primary public health objective of Maharashtra's intensive HPV vaccination campaign as described in the article?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.To treat existing cases of cervical cancer in women.
  • B.To prevent cervical cancer by immunising adolescent girls against the Human Papillomavirus.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce maternal mortality rates through improved antenatal care.
  • D.To control the spread of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among adults.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article frames the campaign as a drive 'against cervical cancer' using the HPV vaccine. It is a preventive measure targeting adolescent girls before potential exposure to the virus, not a treatment for existing cancer or a programme for maternal health or general STI control.

Source: Maharashtra Launches HPV Vaccine Drive Targeting 9.84 Lakh 14-Year-Old Girls Under Nationwide Immunisation Programme →
Q69.

Which Union Ministry is responsible for the policy proposal regarding Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) for fertiliser subsidy mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers
  • D.Ministry of Rural Development
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article mentions Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan speaking about the proposal. The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the nodal ministry for agricultural policies, including fertiliser subsidy reforms. While the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers handles production, the policy announcement comes under Agriculture.

Source: Centre Proposes DBT for ₹1.7 Trillion Fertiliser Subsidy; Punjab Fears Upfront Cost Hike from ₹270 to ₹2,400 Per Bag →
Q70.

Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) model for fertiliser subsidy:

1. It proposes to transfer the subsidy amount directly to the bank accounts of fertiliser manufacturing companies.

2. Under this model, farmers would have to pay the full market price for fertilisers upfront at the time of purchase.

3. A primary concern raised is that it could increase the debt burden for small farmers who lack liquidity at the sowing season.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The proposed DBT model shifts the subsidy from companies to farmers' bank accounts, not to companies. Statement 2 is correct as per the article: farmers may pay the full price (~₹2,400/bag) upfront. Statement 3 is correct as farmer leaders like Jagmohan Singh warned it would increase debt burden due to liquidity crunch.

Source: Centre Proposes DBT for ₹1.7 Trillion Fertiliser Subsidy; Punjab Fears Upfront Cost Hike from ₹270 to ₹2,400 Per Bag →
Q71.

According to the article, what is the approximate share of India's total fertiliser consumption accounted for by the state of Punjab?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.5-6%
  • B.9-10%✓ Correct Answer
  • C.12-15%
  • D.18-20%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Punjab 'consumes nearly 9-10% of India’s total fertilisers'. This high consumption makes it a focal point for the DBT debate. The other options are plausible distractors but not supported by the given text.

Source: Centre Proposes DBT for ₹1.7 Trillion Fertiliser Subsidy; Punjab Fears Upfront Cost Hike from ₹270 to ₹2,400 Per Bag →
Q72.

What is a major criticism raised by farmer unions against the proposed shift to a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system for fertiliser subsidy, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.It will lead to an immediate increase in fertiliser prices for companies.
  • B.It may mark the beginning of a long-term reduction or withdrawal of the subsidy support.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.It will complicate the procurement process for fertiliser manufacturing units.
  • D.It requires constitutional amendments that are not feasible.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article highlights the fear that once farmers pay market prices upfront, subsidy payments could be delayed, reduced, capped, or eventually curtailed under fiscal or global trade pressures (like WTO commitments). This long-term risk of subsidy withdrawal is a core criticism, unlike the other options which are not discussed.

Source: Centre Proposes DBT for ₹1.7 Trillion Fertiliser Subsidy; Punjab Fears Upfront Cost Hike from ₹270 to ₹2,400 Per Bag →
Q73.

Which Indian defence organisation has established AI-focused centres as mentioned in the article?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS)
  • B.Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO)
  • D.Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has established AI-focused centres. DRDO is the primary R&D wing of the Ministry of Defence.

Source: India's Defence R&D Below 1% GDP; US-India Undersea Cables & iDEX Framework Signal AI Geopolitics Shift →
Q74.

Consider the following statements regarding AI in defence as discussed in the article:

1. AI applications such as autonomous systems and cyber defence are shaping India's strategic priorities.

2. The United States and China dominate global defence AI spending and patenting.

3. India's overall Research and Development (R&D) expenditure is above 2% of its GDP.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states AI applications are shaping strategic priorities. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions US and China dominate defence AI spending. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article clearly states India's overall R&D expenditure remains below one per cent of GDP, not above 2%.

Source: India's Defence R&D Below 1% GDP; US-India Undersea Cables & iDEX Framework Signal AI Geopolitics Shift →
Q75.

According to the article, what is the approximate level of India's overall Research and Development (R&D) expenditure as a percentage of GDP?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Below 1%✓ Correct Answer
  • B.Between 1.5% and 2%
  • C.Around 2.5%
  • D.Above 3%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article specifically states: "India’s overall R&D expenditure remains below one per cent of GDP." The other options are distractors representing higher, unachieved figures.

Source: India's Defence R&D Below 1% GDP; US-India Undersea Cables & iDEX Framework Signal AI Geopolitics Shift →
Q76.

What is the primary strategic implication of the undersea data cables being laid between the US and India, as highlighted in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.They primarily aim to reduce international call rates for citizens.
  • B.They mark the consolidation of critical data corridors essential for AI systems reliant on rapid data exchange.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.They are mainly a project to boost tourism between the two nations.
  • D.Their main purpose is to provide backup internet during natural disasters.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that these undersea cables signal more than improved connectivity; they consolidate critical data corridors between strategic partners. It further states they are strategically vital as they carry most global data traffic, which is essential for AI systems that rely on rapid data exchange and low latency.

Source: India's Defence R&D Below 1% GDP; US-India Undersea Cables & iDEX Framework Signal AI Geopolitics Shift →
Q77.

The Rig Vedic society, as discussed in the article, was primarily settled in which geographical region?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Gangetic Plains
  • B.The Deccan Plateau
  • C.The Sapta-Sindhu region✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The Coastal regions of Peninsular India
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that from 1500 BC to 1000 BC, the Vedic people settled along the Sapta-Sindhu region, the tributaries of the Indus in today's Punjab. This is a core geographical fact for ancient history.

Source: Rig Vedic Society (1500-1000 BC): Transition from Pastoralism to Agrarian Settlement in Sapta-Sindhu Region →
Q78.

Consider the following statements regarding the transition of Rig Vedic society:

1. The early Rig Vedic economy was strongly pastoral, with cattle being the primary form of wealth.

2. The term 'gavisthi' refers to organized territorial warfare over land and resources.

3. The importance of 'yava' (barley) in the Rig Veda indicates the development of systematic agriculture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states 'The early Rig Vedic economy was strongly pastoral. Cattle were the primary form of wealth...' Statement 2 is incorrect because 'gavisthi' meant 'search for cows' or cattle raids, not territorial warfare. 'Sangrama' denoted organized territorial battle. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions 'yava' (barley) indicates systematic cultivation.

Source: Rig Vedic Society (1500-1000 BC): Transition from Pastoralism to Agrarian Settlement in Sapta-Sindhu Region →
Q79.

According to the article, what was the time period associated with the Rig Vedic society's transition discussed?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.2500 BC to 1500 BC
  • B.1500 BC to 1000 BC✓ Correct Answer
  • C.1000 BC to 600 BC
  • D.600 BC to 300 BC
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's first paragraph clearly states: 'From 1500 BC to 1000 BC, the Vedic people settled along the Sapta-Sindhu region...' This is the specific timeframe for the societal transition being analyzed.

Source: Rig Vedic Society (1500-1000 BC): Transition from Pastoralism to Agrarian Settlement in Sapta-Sindhu Region →
Q80.

What was a significant socio-political consequence of the transition from pastoralism to settled agriculture in Rig Vedic society, as per the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.The complete disappearance of tribal conflicts.
  • B.The transformation of the Rajan from a leader of equals to a more powerful territorial figure.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The immediate establishment of a centralized empire.
  • D.The equal distribution of wealth among all social groups.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explains that as land became valuable, 'political authority became more territorial. Chiefs no longer led only mobile war bands but exercised control over settled communities, fields, and surplus. The rajan thus transformed from being a leader among equals to a more powerful figure sustained by tribute and agricultural produce.' This is a direct application of the economic change to political structure.

Source: Rig Vedic Society (1500-1000 BC): Transition from Pastoralism to Agrarian Settlement in Sapta-Sindhu Region →
Q81.

Which autonomous organization is responsible for preparing and revising NCERT textbooks?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.University Grants Commission (UGC)
  • B.National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
  • D.Ministry of Education
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The NCERT is the autonomous organization established by the Government of India to advise on school education policies and develop curriculum frameworks and textbooks, as mentioned in the article regarding the controversial textbook revisions.

Source: NCERT Textbook Revisions Under NEP 2020 Spark Controversy Over Content Changes Including Gujarat Riots, Mughal History →
Q82.

Consider the following statements regarding NCERT textbook revisions mentioned in the article:

1. The new NCERT textbooks are being developed in line with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.

2. As part of revisions, references to the 'anti-Muslim riots' in Gujarat were replaced with 'Gujarat riots' in a Class 12 textbook.

3. The revised Class 12 Political Science textbook explicitly names the 'Babri Masjid' while describing the Ayodhya dispute.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states new books are being developed per NEP 2020 recommendations. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions the change from 'anti-Muslim riots' to 'Gujarat riots'. Statement 3 is incorrect because the article says the revised textbook did NOT mention Babri Masjid by name, calling it a 'three-domed structure' instead.

Source: NCERT Textbook Revisions Under NEP 2020 Spark Controversy Over Content Changes Including Gujarat Riots, Mughal History →
Q83.

According to the article, how many rounds of textbook revisions has NCERT undertaken since 2014, including the 'rationalisation' exercise?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Two rounds
  • B.Three rounds
  • C.Four rounds✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Five rounds
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Before the new books were released, the NCERT had four rounds of textbook revisions since 2014, including a round of "rationalisation" in 2022-23.'

Source: NCERT Textbook Revisions Under NEP 2020 Spark Controversy Over Content Changes Including Gujarat Riots, Mughal History →
Q84.

What was the primary reason cited by NCERT for the withdrawal of the new Class 8 Social Science textbook?

MediumUPSC, Teaching
  • A.It contained factual errors about historical dates.
  • B.It was not aligned with the NCFSE 2023 framework.
  • C.It featured a section on 'corruption in the judiciary' deemed inappropriate.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.It was released after the academic session had ended.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states the book was pulled after 'The Indian Express' reported it featured a section on 'corruption in the judiciary'. NCERT later expressed regret for the 'inappropriate textual material and error of judgement' that had 'inadvertently crept' into the chapter.

Source: NCERT Textbook Revisions Under NEP 2020 Spark Controversy Over Content Changes Including Gujarat Riots, Mughal History →
Q85.

Under which Act were the three men detained, as upheld by the Allahabad High Court in the recent case?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
  • B.The National Security Act, 1980✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The Preventive Detention Act, 1950
  • D.The Maintenance of Internal Security Act, 1971
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the detention order was passed under the National Security Act (NSA), 1980. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is for terrorist activities, while MISA was repealed. There is no general Preventive Detention Act of 1950.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds NSA Detention Over Cattle Slaughter Citing 'Public Order' Disturbance During Chaitra Navratri-Eid →
Q86.

Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High Court's judgment on NSA detention:

1. The Court dismissed the habeas corpus petitions filed by the detainees.

2. The Court found that the incident was an isolated offence affecting only the individuals involved.

3. The Court emphasized that the incident occurred during the confluence of Chaitra Navratri and Eid, creating heightened communal sensitivity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, State PSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the court dismissed the three habeas corpus petitions. Statement 2 is incorrect as the court specifically held the incident 'cannot be characterised as an isolated offence' and detailed its community-wide impact. Statement 3 is correct as the court noted the timing on the first day of Navratri followed by Eid created an 'atmosphere of extraordinary communal sensitivity'.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds NSA Detention Over Cattle Slaughter Citing 'Public Order' Disturbance During Chaitra Navratri-Eid →
Q87.

For what period was the NSA detention order confirmed by the state government, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.3 months
  • B.6 months
  • C.1 year✓ Correct Answer
  • D.2 years
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that after approval by the state government and the advisory board, the detention orders were 'confirmed for a period of one year'. This is a factual detail from the case timeline.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds NSA Detention Over Cattle Slaughter Citing 'Public Order' Disturbance During Chaitra Navratri-Eid →
Q88.

What was the primary legal test applied by the Allahabad High Court to uphold the NSA detention in this case?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Whether the accused were granted bail in the criminal case.
  • B.Whether the detention order was approved by the District Magistrate.
  • C.Whether the act disturbed the 'even tempo of life' of the community, affecting public order.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Whether the evidence of cattle slaughter was conclusively proven.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The court's reasoning centered on the distinction between 'public order' and 'law and order'. It upheld the detention because the grounds established a disturbance of the 'even tempo of community life' due to community-wide fear, tension, and risk of communal violence. The other options are procedural steps, not the core legal test for applying NSA.

Source: Allahabad HC Upholds NSA Detention Over Cattle Slaughter Citing 'Public Order' Disturbance During Chaitra Navratri-Eid →
Q89.

The single-dose HPV vaccination strategy for adolescents adopted by the Indian government aligns with the recommendations of which international organization?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.World Bank
  • B.World Health Organization (WHO)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
  • D.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the government's single-dose approach aligns with the WHO's 2022 findings and its global cervical cancer elimination strategy.

Source: National HPV Vaccination Drive Targets 1.15 Crore 14-Year-Olds Annually with Single-Dose Gardasil-4, Aligns with WHO 2022 Strategy →
Q90.

Consider the following statements regarding the National HPV Vaccination Drive discussed in the news:

1. It aims to vaccinate 1.15 crore young women who turn 14 every year.

2. The vaccine will be administered in two doses, following the standard private clinic protocol.

3. Eligible beneficiaries need to book a slot using the U-win portal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article's target. Statement 2 is incorrect because the government drive uses a single-dose regimen, not the two/three-dose protocol of private clinics. Statement 3 is correct as the U-win portal is mentioned for booking.

Source: National HPV Vaccination Drive Targets 1.15 Crore 14-Year-Olds Annually with Single-Dose Gardasil-4, Aligns with WHO 2022 Strategy →
Q91.

According to the article, what proportion of the global cervical cancer burden does India account for?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.About one-tenth
  • B.About one-fifth✓ Correct Answer
  • C.About one-third
  • D.About one-half
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article states: 'The country accounts for about a fifth of the global burden of the disease.' This translates to approximately 20%.

Source: National HPV Vaccination Drive Targets 1.15 Crore 14-Year-Olds Annually with Single-Dose Gardasil-4, Aligns with WHO 2022 Strategy →
Q92.

What is identified as a critical factor, besides vaccine supply, for the success of India's cervical cancer elimination efforts?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.Reducing the cost of the vaccine further
  • B.The efficacy of information and awareness drives✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Importing more advanced screening equipment
  • D.Making the vaccine mandatory by law
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that 'the elimination of cervical cancer in India will hinge not just on the supply of vaccines; the efficacy of information drives will be as critical.' This highlights the importance of combating misinformation and building public trust.

Source: National HPV Vaccination Drive Targets 1.15 Crore 14-Year-Olds Annually with Single-Dose Gardasil-4, Aligns with WHO 2022 Strategy →
Q93.

The National Critical and Strategic Minerals Committee, as mentioned in the news, has been constituted by which apex policy institution?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Planning Commission
  • B.NITI Aayog✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Mines
  • D.Department of Atomic Energy
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states the committee was 'constituted by NITI Aayog'. NITI Aayog is the current apex policy think tank, while the Planning Commission was its predecessor abolished in 2014.

Source: NITI Aayog Committee Urges Joint Public-Private Exploration for Lithium, REEs to Achieve Self-Reliance →
Q94.

Consider the following statements regarding the news article:

1. The committee meeting was chaired by Dr. Buddhaprakash Jyoti, CMD of SCCL.

2. Critical minerals like lithium and cobalt are vital only for the renewable energy sector.

3. Singareni Collieries is exploring the extraction of Rare Earth Elements from fly ash.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) None of the above
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The meeting was chaired by Dr. D.K. Singh, a former BARC scientist. Dr. Buddhaprakash Jyoti is a member and CMD of SCCL. Statement 2 is incorrect as the article states these minerals are also indispensable for electric vehicles, electronics, defense, and advanced manufacturing. Statement 3 is correct as per the article.

Source: NITI Aayog Committee Urges Joint Public-Private Exploration for Lithium, REEs to Achieve Self-Reliance →
Q95.

According to the news, where was the second meeting of the National Critical and Strategic Minerals Committee held?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.NITI Aayog, New Delhi
  • B.Singareni Bhavan, Hyderabad✓ Correct Answer
  • C.BARC, Mumbai
  • D.NLC India, Chennai
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly mentions the second meeting was held at 'Singareni Bhavan in Hyderabad on Thursday (February 26, 2026)'. This is a specific, testable fact for prelims.

Source: NITI Aayog Committee Urges Joint Public-Private Exploration for Lithium, REEs to Achieve Self-Reliance →
Q96.

What is the primary objective behind the NITI Aayog committee's emphasis on developing critical minerals within India, as per the news?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To increase coal production and thermal power generation.
  • B.To transform India into a self-reliant nation in the critical minerals sector.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To promote foreign direct investment in the mining sector.
  • D.To reduce the fiscal deficit by increasing mining royalties.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core theme, as stated in its title and content, is achieving 'self-reliance' or 'Atmanirbharata' in critical minerals. This reduces import dependency and strengthens resource security for strategic sectors like defense and green energy.

Source: NITI Aayog Committee Urges Joint Public-Private Exploration for Lithium, REEs to Achieve Self-Reliance →
Q97.

Which Union Ministry is responsible for the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) mentioned in the news?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.Ministry of Finance
  • B.Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Ministry of Rural Development
  • D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, Union Minister Pralhad Joshi, who is from the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, announced the expansion. This ministry oversees the Public Distribution System (PDS) and food security schemes like PMGKAY.

Source: CBDC e-Rupee for PMGKAY Subsidy Distribution to be Expanded Nationwide After Pilot in Ahmedabad, Puducherry →
Q98.

Consider the following statements regarding the CBDC-based Food Subsidy Distribution programme:

1. It was first launched as a pilot project in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.

2. The programme uses the e-Rupee for Direct Benefit Transfer under the PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana.

3. After Puducherry, the next pilots will be launched in Chandigarh and Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the programme was first launched as a pilot in Ahmedabad. Statement 2 is correct as the programme is CBDC-based for DBT under PMGKAY. Statement 3 is correct as the Minister stated the next phases are Chandigarh and Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Source: CBDC e-Rupee for PMGKAY Subsidy Distribution to be Expanded Nationwide After Pilot in Ahmedabad, Puducherry →
Q99.

According to the news, where was the CBDC-based Direct Benefit Transfer programme inaugurated by Union Minister Pralhad Joshi on February 26, 2026?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.Ahmedabad, Gujarat
  • B.New Delhi
  • C.Puducherry✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Chandigarh
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that the Union Minister inaugurated the CBDC-based Direct Benefit Transfer in Puducherry on that date. Ahmedabad was the first pilot location, and Chandigarh is mentioned as a future location.

Source: CBDC e-Rupee for PMGKAY Subsidy Distribution to be Expanded Nationwide After Pilot in Ahmedabad, Puducherry →
Q100.

What is the primary objective of using Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) for distributing food grain subsidies, as per the news article?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.To replace the existing Public Distribution System (PDS) network of Fair Price Shops
  • B.To enhance the efficiency and transparency of the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanism✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To reduce the overall food grain procurement burden on the Food Corporation of India (FCI)
  • D.To promote the use of cryptocurrencies among the general public
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The core objective, as inferred from the context of using CBDC for DBT under a major welfare scheme, is to improve the delivery mechanism by making it more efficient, transparent, and potentially reducing leakages. The article focuses on the delivery method, not replacing PDS infrastructure or reducing procurement.

Source: CBDC e-Rupee for PMGKAY Subsidy Distribution to be Expanded Nationwide After Pilot in Ahmedabad, Puducherry →
Q101.

The income mobility data cited in the analysis is primarily sourced from which organization's survey?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.National Statistical Office (NSO)
  • B.Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE)✓ Correct Answer
  • C.NITI Aayog
  • D.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the analysis draws on data from the Consumer Pyramids Household Survey conducted by the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE). This is a key static GK fact about a major data source for the Indian economy.

Source: Income Mobility Study (2014-25): Downward Mobility Rises to 26.8% from 14% in 2015, SC/OBC, Rural Households Worst Hit →
Q102.

Consider the following statements regarding the findings of the income mobility study (2014-2025):

1. The share of households experiencing downward mobility nearly doubled from 2015 to 2025.

2. Upward mobility in 2025 was higher than downward mobility for the first time in the study period.

3. Scheduled Caste (SC) households experienced the sharpest rise in upward mobility among all social groups.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, MPSC
  • A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: downward mobility rose from 14% (2015) to 26.8% (2025). Statement 2 is incorrect because upward mobility in 2025 was 23.5%, which is less than the 26.8% downward mobility. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states upward mobility remained muted and uneven for SCs, while OBCs and Unreserved groups saw improvements.

Source: Income Mobility Study (2014-25): Downward Mobility Rises to 26.8% from 14% in 2015, SC/OBC, Rural Households Worst Hit →
Q103.

According to the study, what percentage of households experienced downward mobility in India in the year 2025?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.14.1%
  • B.23.5%
  • C.26.8%✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Over 70%
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article provides the exact data point: "the share of households experiencing downward mobility nearly doubles — from 14% in 2015 to 26.8% in 2025". 14.1% is the upward mobility figure for 2015, 23.5% is for upward mobility in 2025, and over 70% was the initial share of households in the same income group.

Source: Income Mobility Study (2014-25): Downward Mobility Rises to 26.8% from 14% in 2015, SC/OBC, Rural Households Worst Hit →
Q104.

What is the primary policy implication highlighted by the study on rising downward income mobility?

MediumUPSC, MPSC
  • A.Focus solely on achieving higher headline GDP growth rates.
  • B.Strengthen public health, education, employment-intensive sectors, and social protection.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.Promote speculative investments in real estate and business ventures.
  • D.Reduce the frequency of national elections to ensure policy continuity.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article concludes that policy must move beyond headline growth and focus on these foundational areas to restore mobility and social stability. The other options are either contrary to the article's suggestions (promoting speculation) or not mentioned as primary policy solutions.

Source: Income Mobility Study (2014-25): Downward Mobility Rises to 26.8% from 14% in 2015, SC/OBC, Rural Households Worst Hit →
Q105.

The 'Two-State Solution', mentioned in the context of the Israel-Palestine conflict in the article, is primarily associated with resolving disputes in which region?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.The Balkans
  • B.The Korean Peninsula
  • C.West Asia / Middle East✓ Correct Answer
  • D.The South China Sea
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Two-State Solution is a long-standing framework for peace between Israel and Palestine, both nations located in the West Asia/Middle East region. The article discusses this in the context of PM Modi's visit to Israel.

Source: India-Israel Upgrade to 'Special Strategic Partnership' & MoUs on AI, Agriculture Amid West Asia Tensions →
Q106.

Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister Narendra Modi's February 2026 visit to Israel:

1. The visit resulted in the upgrade of bilateral ties to a 'Special Strategic Partnership'.

2. Over 15 Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) were signed, including in areas like Artificial Intelligence and agriculture.

3. A key outcome was an agreement to facilitate the employment of 1,00,000 Indian workers in Israel over the next decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states ties were upgraded to a 'Special Strategic Partnership'. Statement 2 is correct as it mentions 'more than 15 MoUs' in AI, agriculture, etc. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article mentions '50,000 Indian workers in Israel over the next five years', not 1,00,000 over a decade.

Source: India-Israel Upgrade to 'Special Strategic Partnership' & MoUs on AI, Agriculture Amid West Asia Tensions →
Q107.

According to the article, what was the agreed number of Indian workers to be facilitated for employment in Israel over the next five years?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.25,000
  • B.50,000✓ Correct Answer
  • C.75,000
  • D.1,00,000
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the two leaders 'agreed to facilitate the employment of 50,000 Indian workers in Israel over the next five years'. This is a key data point from the bilateral talks.

Source: India-Israel Upgrade to 'Special Strategic Partnership' & MoUs on AI, Agriculture Amid West Asia Tensions →
Q108.

A primary concern raised in the article regarding India's deepening ties with Israel is the potential impact on:

MediumUPSC
  • A.India's relations with European powers like Germany and France.
  • B.India's historically calibrated balance in West Asia and ties with Arab nations.✓ Correct Answer
  • C.The progress of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC).
  • D.India's domestic manufacturing capabilities in defense technology.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article's core argument is that strengthening relations with Israel 'could come at the cost of India’s relations with other West Asian powers, which expect India to remain steadfast to its historically calibrated regional balance'. The other options, while related, are not the primary concern highlighted.

Source: India-Israel Upgrade to 'Special Strategic Partnership' & MoUs on AI, Agriculture Amid West Asia Tensions →
Q109.

The Durand Line, a major point of contention between Pakistan and Afghanistan, was demarcated by an official of which colonial power?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.French Colonial Administration
  • B.Portuguese Colonial Administration
  • C.British Colonial Administration✓ Correct Answer
  • D.Dutch Colonial Administration
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The Durand Line was demarcated in 1893 by Sir Mortimer Durand, who was the Foreign Secretary of British India. This line divided territories under British influence from those under Afghan influence.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan 'Open War' Over Durand Line Dispute, TTP Safe Havens, and India's Shadow →
Q110.

Consider the following statements regarding the Pakistan-Afghanistan conflict:

1. Afghanistan was the only country to oppose Pakistan's entry into the United Nations.

2. The Durand Line Agreement of 1893 was intended by the British to create a permanent international border.

3. Pakistan's Defence Minister Khawaja Asif described the recent escalation as an 'open war' with Afghanistan's Taliban government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

HardUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: Afghanistan became the only country to oppose Pakistan's entry into the UN. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clarifies that the Durand Line's original purpose was to define spheres of influence, not a permanent border. Statement 3 is correct as Khawaja Asif described the situation as an 'open war'.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan 'Open War' Over Durand Line Dispute, TTP Safe Havens, and India's Shadow →
Q111.

According to the article, what is the total length of the disputed Durand Line between Pakistan and Afghanistan?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.1,840 km
  • B.2,240 km
  • C.2,640 km✓ Correct Answer
  • D.3,140 km
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Durand Line is 2,640-km long. This is a key factual data point for the dispute.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan 'Open War' Over Durand Line Dispute, TTP Safe Havens, and India's Shadow →
Q112.

What is identified in the article as a primary reason for the current 'bone of contention' leading to open conflict between Pakistan and Afghanistan?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.Dispute over water-sharing rights of the Indus River.
  • B.Pakistan's support for the Afghan Taliban against the Soviet Union.
  • C.Afghanistan's harboring of Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP) militants, considered kin by Afghan Pashtuns.✓ Correct Answer
  • D.A trade dispute over tariffs on goods passing through the Karachi port.
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article identifies that the TTP is 'considered as kin by the Afghan Pashtuns' and that Pakistan accuses Kabul of harboring these militants, calling it the 'real bone of contention'. While other issues like trade exist, this is highlighted as the immediate trigger for the conflict.

Source: Pakistan-Afghanistan 'Open War' Over Durand Line Dispute, TTP Safe Havens, and India's Shadow →
Q113.

The 'Five Eyes' intelligence alliance, mentioned in the context of Canada's strategic partnerships, includes which of the following countries?

EasyUPSC, SSC
  • A.USA, UK, Canada, Australia, New Zealand✓ Correct Answer
  • B.USA, UK, France, Germany, Canada
  • C.USA, UK, India, Japan, Australia
  • D.USA, Russia, China, UK, France
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

As per the article, the Five Eyes grouping includes the US, the UK, Australia, and New Zealand alongside Canada. This is a standard static GK fact about the intelligence-sharing alliance.

Source: India-Canada Reset Ties Under PM Carney: CEPA Targets $70 Billion Trade by 2030 Amid Strategic Realignment →
Q114.

Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada relationship as discussed in the article:

1. The diplomatic crisis in 2023 was triggered by allegations linking the Indian government to the killing of pro-Khalistani separatist Hardeep Singh Nijjar.

2. Canada is India's seventh-largest trading partner in goods and services, with two-way trade valued at approximately $30.8 billion in 2024.

3. The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) between India and Canada aims to triple bilateral trade by the year 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

MediumUPSC, SSC
  • A.(A) Only 1
  • B.(B) Only 2
  • C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
  • D.(D) All three
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states the crisis was over Trudeau's allegations regarding Hardeep Nijjar's killing. Statement 2 is correct as the article mentions India was Canada's seventh-largest trading partner with $30.8 billion trade in 2024. Statement 3 is incorrect; the CEPA aims to double trade to $70 billion by 2030, not triple it.

Source: India-Canada Reset Ties Under PM Carney: CEPA Targets $70 Billion Trade by 2030 Amid Strategic Realignment →
Q115.

According to the article, what is the cumulative Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from Canada into India from April 2000 to June 2025?

MediumUPSC, Banking
  • A.$2.18 Billion
  • B.$3.18 Billion
  • C.$4.18 Billion✓ Correct Answer
  • D.$5.18 Billion
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article explicitly states that Canada's cumulative investment in India during the period April 2000 to June 2025 was $4.18 billion, making it the 17th largest foreign investor in India.

Source: India-Canada Reset Ties Under PM Carney: CEPA Targets $70 Billion Trade by 2030 Amid Strategic Realignment →
Q116.

What is the primary strategic objective behind creating a separate framework under the National Security Advisors (NSAs) of India and Canada, as mentioned in the article?

MediumUPSC, State PSC
  • A.To jointly develop defense technologies
  • B.To firewall the bilateral relationship from the fallout of the Nijjar investigation✓ Correct Answer
  • C.To coordinate positions on climate change negotiations
  • D.To manage student visa policies and educational exchanges
▶ Show Explanation

Explanation

The article clearly states that the NSA-led mechanism on 'transnational crimes' was created specifically to address concerns related to pro-Khalistani activities and to 'firewall the relationship from the Nijjar investigation', thereby insulating broader ties from a single judicial issue.

Source: India-Canada Reset Ties Under PM Carney: CEPA Targets $70 Billion Trade by 2030 Amid Strategic Realignment →

Why Practice Current Affairs Questions Daily?

For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.

  • Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
  • Build Elimination Skills: Exam-style distractors train you to eliminate wrong options confidently, especially in UPSC statement-based questions.
  • Reinforce Static GK Links: Each question links back to a source article, helping you connect current events to static textbook concepts.

Frequently Asked Questions

What are the important current affairs questions for 27 February 2026?▼

This page contains 116 current affairs questions from 27 February 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.

How to use 27 February 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼

Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.

How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼

Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.

Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼

Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.

What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼

Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.

All Questions in This Set

  1. Q1. ministry/department is primarily responsible for releasing Ind…
  2. Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series…
  3. Q3. is the new base year adopted for the recently released GDP ser…
  4. Q4. is a key fiscal implication of the downward revision of nomina…
  5. Q5. independent policy research institution is mentioned in the ar…
  6. Q6. Consider the following statements regarding India's critical m…
  7. Q7. is the target number of exploration projects set by the Nation…
  8. Q8. According to the article, what is identified as the 'most deci…
  9. Q9. Ministry is responsible for releasing the GDP estimates and re…
  10. Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series…
  11. Q11. According to the second advance estimates under the new GDP se…
  12. Q12. is a primary objective of shifting from the single-deflator me…
  13. Q13. The 'One Country, Two Systems' framework, mentioned in the con…
  14. Q14. Consider the following statements regarding the Hong Kong Nati…
  15. Q15. According to the article, approximately how many people have b…
  16. Q16. was a primary consequence of the Hong Kong National Security L…
  17. Q17. Under which article of the Constitution was the original petit…
  18. Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
  19. Q19. According to the article, what is the approximate per-prisoner…
  20. Q20. was the primary constitutional rationale provided by the Supre…
  21. Q21. central agency investigated the case against the Sri Lankan na…
  22. Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala High Co…
  23. Q23. For how long had the Sri Lankan national been in custody befor…
  24. Q24. was the primary legal rationale used by the Kerala High Court …
  25. Q25. ministry is responsible for releasing the new series of nation…
  26. Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series…
  27. Q27. According to the First Advance Estimates for FY 2025-26 releas…
  28. Q28. is the primary rationale cited for selecting the year 2022-23 …
  29. Q29. ministry/department is responsible for releasing India's offic…
  30. Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the new GDP series…
  31. Q31. According to the second advance estimate released by MoSPI, wh…
  32. Q32. does the data on investment by 'unincorporated enterprises', a…
  33. Q33. The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, discussed by the Edu…
  34. Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the National Educa…
  35. Q35. According to the Union Education Minister, what is the targete…
  36. Q36. is the primary rationale given by the Education Minister for e…
  37. Q37. Ministry is responsible for implementing the Urban Challenge F…
  38. Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the Urban Challeng…
  39. Q39. is the total investment that the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF) is…
  40. Q40. is the primary objective of structuring the Urban Challenge Fu…
  41. Q41. heads the Supreme Court collegium responsible for recommending…
  42. Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Supreme…
  43. Q43. According to the new Supreme Court collegium policy, what is t…
  44. Q44. is the primary objective of the Supreme Court collegium's new …
  45. Q45. Under which Act is the Child Welfare Committee (CWC), mentione…
  46. Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the POCSO Act as d…
  47. Q47. According to the 2022 Enfold study analysing POCSO judgments c…
  48. Q48. is a primary criticism, as highlighted in the article, of the …
  49. Q49. High Court recently allowed WhatsApp chats as evidence in a ma…
  50. Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the recent Allahab…
  51. Q51. was the monthly maintenance amount that the Allahabad High Cou…
  52. Q52. is the primary legal significance of the Allahabad High Court'…
  53. Q53. The right to hold a passport and travel abroad has been declar…
  54. Q54. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
  55. Q55. According to the news, on which date did the authorities pass …
  56. Q56. was the primary legal ground on which the Delhi High Court set…
  57. Q57. The Durand Line agreement of 1893 was signed between a British…
  58. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding the Pakistan-Afgha…
  59. Q59. According to the Pak Institute for Peace Studies data mentione…
  60. Q60. was Pakistan's primary strategic objective in supporting the A…
  61. Q61. constitutional body initiated a suo motu case regarding the NC…
  62. Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Israel r…
  63. Q63. According to the news, what is the quota for Indian workers in…
  64. Q64. is the primary significance of the Centre's affidavit in the S…
  65. Q65. frontline worker cadre, mentioned in the article, is primarily…
  66. Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the HPV vaccinatio…
  67. Q67. According to the article, what is the total number of adolesce…
  68. Q68. is the primary public health objective of Maharashtra's intens…
  69. Q69. Union Ministry is responsible for the policy proposal regardin…
  70. Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed Direc…
  71. Q71. According to the article, what is the approximate share of Ind…
  72. Q72. is a major criticism raised by farmer unions against the propo…
  73. Q73. Indian defence organisation has established AI-focused centres…
  74. Q74. Consider the following statements regarding AI in defence as d…
  75. Q75. According to the article, what is the approximate level of Ind…
  76. Q76. is the primary strategic implication of the undersea data cabl…
  77. Q77. The Rig Vedic society, as discussed in the article, was primar…
  78. Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the transition of …
  79. Q79. According to the article, what was the time period associated …
  80. Q80. was a significant socio-political consequence of the transitio…
  81. Q81. autonomous organization is responsible for preparing and revis…
  82. Q82. Consider the following statements regarding NCERT textbook rev…
  83. Q83. According to the article, how many rounds of textbook revision…
  84. Q84. was the primary reason cited by NCERT for the withdrawal of th…
  85. Q85. Under which Act were the three men detained, as upheld by the …
  86. Q86. Consider the following statements regarding the Allahabad High…
  87. Q87. For what period was the NSA detention order confirmed by the s…
  88. Q88. was the primary legal test applied by the Allahabad High Court…
  89. Q89. The single-dose HPV vaccination strategy for adolescents adopt…
  90. Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the National HPV V…
  91. Q91. According to the article, what proportion of the global cervic…
  92. Q92. is identified as a critical factor, besides vaccine supply, fo…
  93. Q93. The National Critical and Strategic Minerals Committee, as men…
  94. Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the news article: …
  95. Q95. According to the news, where was the second meeting of the Nat…
  96. Q96. is the primary objective behind the NITI Aayog committee's emp…
  97. Q97. Union Ministry is responsible for the implementation of the Pr…
  98. Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the CBDC-based Foo…
  99. Q99. According to the news, where was the CBDC-based Direct Benefit…
  100. Q100. is the primary objective of using Central Bank Digital Currenc…
  101. Q101. The income mobility data cited in the analysis is primarily so…
  102. Q102. Consider the following statements regarding the findings of th…
  103. Q103. According to the study, what percentage of households experien…
  104. Q104. is the primary policy implication highlighted by the study on …
  105. Q105. The 'Two-State Solution', mentioned in the context of the Isra…
  106. Q106. Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister Nar…
  107. Q107. According to the article, what was the agreed number of Indian…
  108. Q108. A primary concern raised in the article regarding India's deep…
  109. Q109. The Durand Line, a major point of contention between Pakistan …
  110. Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Pakistan-Afgha…
  111. Q111. According to the article, what is the total length of the disp…
  112. Q112. is identified in the article as a primary reason for the curre…
  113. Q113. The 'Five Eyes' intelligence alliance, mentioned in the contex…
  114. Q114. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Canada r…
  115. Q115. According to the article, what is the cumulative Foreign Direc…
  116. Q116. is the primary strategic objective behind creating a separate …