23 February 2026, Questions & Answers
112 current affairs questions with answers for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams.
112 questions · 0 topics covered · 23 min revision
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This page contains 112 current affairs questions with answers from 23 February 2026, covering multiple important topics and more. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the concept behind it.
These questions are curated specifically for UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, focusing on conceptual clarity, factual accuracy, and exam relevance. All questions are derived from important news published in The Hindu and Indian Express.
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112 QsUnder which constitutional article is a Delimitation Commission constituted by the President of India?
- A.Article 80
- B.Article 82✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 324
- D.Article 368
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Explanation
Article 82 of the Constitution provides for the readjustment of parliamentary constituencies after each Census, which includes the establishment of a Delimitation Commission by the President. This is the core constitutional provision mentioned in the article as the basis for implementing the Women's Reservation Act.
Consider the following statements regarding the Women's Reservation Act, 2023:
1. It reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies.
2. The reservation will come into effect immediately after the first Census conducted after the year 2026.
3. The Act also provides for reservation of seats for women in the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the Act. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Act states implementation will begin 'after the first Census taken after the year 2026' AND the subsequent delimitation, not immediately after the Census. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article explicitly states the Act applies only to directly elected lower houses (Lok Sabha and State Assemblies), excluding the Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils.
According to the article, what is the earliest general election by which the Women's Reservation Act can be implemented, based on its current constitutional prerequisites?
- A.2029 General Election
- B.2032 General Election
- C.2034 General Election✓ Correct Answer
- D.2036 General Election
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Explanation
The article clearly states that implementation is 'constitutionally impossible' for the 2029 elections. Given the timeline of the 2027 Census, data publication, and a complex delimitation exercise (historically taking 3-6 years), the earliest feasible implementation is for the general election in 2034.
What is identified in the article as the primary political reason for linking the Women's Reservation Act to the delimitation exercise?
- A.To ensure a more accurate population-based representation for women.
- B.To avoid displacing a large number of incumbent male Members of Parliament.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To synchronize it with the restructuring of local body elections.
- D.To comply with a directive from the Supreme Court of India.
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Explanation
The article explains the 'political arithmetic': immediate implementation within the existing 543-seat Lok Sabha would reserve 181 seats for women, displacing an equal number of male MPs. By tying it to delimitation, which is expected to expand the total number of seats, reservation can be achieved through expansion rather than replacement, absorbing the political pain.
Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech to Members of Parliament?
- A.Article 19
- B.Article 105✓ Correct Answer
- C.Article 121
- D.Article 356
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Explanation
Article 105 of the Constitution specifically deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of MPs, including freedom of speech in Parliament. Article 19 guarantees freedom of speech to citizens, Article 121 restricts discussion on judges, and Article 356 deals with President's Rule.
Consider the following statements regarding freedom of speech of MPs:
1. It is guaranteed by Article 105 and is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules of the House.
2. Rule 380 of the Lok Sabha Rules permits the Speaker to expunge entire paragraphs if they are found to be defamatory.
3. Article 121 prohibits any discussion in Parliament on the conduct of a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per Article 105. Statement 2 is incorrect because Rule 380 permits expunging only the offending word, not entire sentences or paragraphs. Statement 3 is incorrect; Article 121 prohibits discussion except when a motion for the removal of the judge is being considered.
As per the parliamentary rules mentioned in the article, which rule specifically grants the Speaker the power to expunge unparliamentary words from the proceedings?
- A.Rule 377
- B.Rule 378
- C.Rule 379
- D.Rule 380✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions Rule 380 as the rule that permits the Speaker to expunge words that are unparliamentary, defamatory, indecent, or undignified from the official records. The other rule numbers are distractors.
What is the primary constitutional rationale behind guaranteeing freedom of speech to MPs in Parliament, as discussed in the article?
- A.To protect MPs from any legal action for their statements.
- B.To enable the Legislature to perform its role effectively through free and fearless expression.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To allow the ruling party to pass legislation without debate.
- D.To maintain the supremacy of parliamentary rules over fundamental rights.
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Explanation
The article cites Erskine May, stating these privileges are indispensable for the smooth functioning of the legislature, and that only free, frank, and fearless expression enables Parliament to perform its role. The other options are either incorrect or contrary to the constitutional principle discussed.
Which apex medical research body in India sets the regulatory guidelines for stem cell research and therapy, as mentioned in the article?
- A.National Medical Commission (NMC)
- B.Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Health Research (DHR)
- D.Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO)
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) approves bone marrow transplant as a form of stem cell therapy. ICMR is the apex body for biomedical research in India and formulates guidelines for such practices.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court judgment on stem cell therapy for autism:
1. The judgment was delivered on January 30, 2026, and bans the use of stem cells as therapy for autism.
2. The petition challenging the therapy was filed solely by medical professionals in 2022.
3. The Court ruled that patients have a right to demand unproven therapies if they provide informed consent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the petition was filed by a unique alliance of caregivers, NGOs, and doctors, not solely by medical professionals. Statement 3 is incorrect; the judgment specifically says patients have NO right to demand unproven therapies outside clinical trials.
In which year was the petition challenging the use of stem cell therapy for autism filed in the Supreme Court, as per the news article?
- A.2020
- B.2021
- C.2022✓ Correct Answer
- D.2023
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the petition was filed in the Supreme Court in May 2022. This alliance of caregivers, NGOs, and doctors challenged the legal permissibility of the therapy.
What is the broader significance of the Supreme Court's judgment on stem cell therapy for autism, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It mandates the government to fund all stem cell research.
- B.It sets a precedent for how any novel medical treatment should be regulated in India.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It declares all forms of stem cell therapy as illegal.
- D.It transfers regulatory power from ICMR to the judiciary.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that while the judgment addresses autism specifically, it 'sets a precedent for how any novel treatment should be regulated.' It highlights the issues of poor regulation and predatory commercialization, providing a model for future cases.
Which Union Ministry released India's first national anti-terror policy, PRAHAAR?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) released the PRAHAAR policy. The MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security and counter-terrorism in India.
Consider the following statements regarding India's first anti-terror policy, PRAHAAR:
1. It identifies threats from criminal hackers and nation-states through cyber-attacks.
2. It links terrorism specifically to religious extremism originating from one particular region.
3. It emphasises the threat of misuse of drones and robotics by state and non-state actors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article, which mentions the policy emphasises threats from 'criminal hackers and nation-states'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy explicitly states 'India does not link terrorism to any specific religion'. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the threat of misuse of drones and robotics.
According to the PRAHAAR policy, terrorist groups are increasingly using organised criminal networks for which of the following purposes?
- A.For political lobbying and funding election campaigns
- B.For logistics and recruitment to facilitate terror strikes✓ Correct Answer
- C.For managing legal defence in international courts
- D.For running legitimate business fronts
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'Increasingly, terrorist groups are engaging organised criminal networks for logistics and recruitment to execute and facilitate terror strikes in India.' The other options are not mentioned in the provided content.
What is a key 'way forward' measure suggested by the PRAHAAR policy to strengthen legal cases against terrorists?
- A.Establishing special fast-track courts for all terror cases
- B.Increasing the punishment for terror offences to life imprisonment
- C.Associating legal experts at every stage of investigation, from FIR to prosecution✓ Correct Answer
- D.Mandating video recording of all interrogations of terror suspects
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Explanation
The policy specifically suggests that 'to make appropriate cases against the perpetrators... there is a need to associate legal experts at every stage of investigation, right from the registration of FIR to its culmination in prosecution.' This is a procedural reform aimed at building legally robust cases.
Which Indian body, under the Ministry of Finance, signed the amending protocol to the India-France DTAC?
- A.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
- B.Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- D.Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
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Explanation
The article states the protocol was signed by Ravi Agrawal, Chairperson of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), on behalf of the Indian government. The CBDT is the apex body for direct taxes under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
Consider the following statements regarding the amendments to the India-France Double Taxation Avoidance Convention (DTAC):
1. It introduces taxation of capital gains on the basis of the residency of the company.
2. It replaces the single dividend withholding tax rate of 10% with a uniform rate of 15% for all shareholders.
3. It incorporates provisions of the BEPS Multilateral Instrument (MLI) into the bilateral treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article confirms capital gains will be taxed based on company residency. Statement 2 is incorrect because it introduces a split rate (5% and 15%), not a uniform 15% rate. Statement 3 is correct as the article explicitly states the protocol incorporates applicable BEPS MLI provisions.
According to the amended India-France DTAC, what is the new withholding tax rate on dividends for a French entity holding 12% of the capital in an Indian company?
- A.5%✓ Correct Answer
- B.10%
- C.15%
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article specifies a split rate: 5% for those holding at least 10% of the capital and 15% for all other cases. Since the holding is 12% (≥10%), the applicable rate is 5%. The old single rate was 10%.
What is a primary expected outcome of deleting the Most-Favoured-Nation (MFN) clause from the India-France DTAC, as per the article?
- A.To automatically lower tax rates for French companies
- B.To increase government revenue in the short term
- C.To bring certainty in taxation and control over treaty benefits✓ Correct Answer
- D.To complicate future treaty negotiations with other countries
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Explanation
The article states that deleting the MFN clause brings 'certainty in taxation'. It eliminates ambiguity and automatic extensions of benefits, giving India greater control. The Supreme Court ruling mentioned had made MFN application contingent on a separate notification, creating uncertainty.
Which constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions for the enforcement of fundamental rights, as was done in the Tehseen Poonawalla case?
- A.Article 32✓ Correct Answer
- B.Article 226
- C.Article 142
- D.Article 136
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Explanation
Article 32 grants the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights. The Tehseen Poonawalla case was a writ petition under Article 32 seeking protection against mob lynching, a violation of the right to life (Article 21).
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The Supreme Court's 2018 judgment in the Tehseen Poonawalla case issued general directions to prevent and prosecute hate crimes.
2. Chief Justice of India Surya Kant has expressed that these directions are perfectly manageable and should be enforced uniformly.
3. The Solicitor General mentioned that mob lynching is a separate offence under the new criminal law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the 2018 judgment did issue general directions. Statement 2 is incorrect; CJI Surya Kant termed these directions as 'unmanageable', not manageable. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, where Solicitor General Tushar Mehta submitted that mob-lynching is a separate offence under the new criminal law.
In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark Tehseen Poonawalla judgment on hate crimes and mob lynching?
- A.2014
- B.2018✓ Correct Answer
- C.2025
- D.2026
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the verdict is 'eight-year-old' in February 2026, placing it in the year 2018. This is a key factual data point for Prelims.
What is the primary implication of Chief Justice Surya Kant's remarks on the 'general directions' from the 2018 hate crime judgment?
- A.It strengthens the Supreme Court's power to directly supervise state police actions.
- B.It signals a shift towards judicial restraint and reliance on local enforcement mechanisms.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It mandates the central government to create a new anti-lynching law immediately.
- D.It overturns the 2018 Tehseen Poonawalla judgment entirely.
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Explanation
The CJI's remarks indicate that broad judicial directions are 'unmanageable' and that the Supreme Court's role is to lay down principles, not micro-manage enforcement. This reflects judicial restraint and emphasizes that victims should seek remedies through local courts and state authorities, as mentioned in the article.
The US Supreme Court recently struck down tariffs imposed under a specific Act. Which US Act empowers the President to regulate commerce during a declared national emergency?
- A.The Omnibus Trade and Competitiveness Act
- B.The International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Trade Act of 1974
- D.The National Emergencies Act
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the US Supreme Court ruled President Trump overstepped his powers by imposing sweeping tariffs under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA). This 1977 law is used for national security emergencies.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments in India-US trade relations:
1. The US Supreme Court upheld President Trump's authority to impose tariffs under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA).
2. Following the SC ruling, President Trump imposed a new flat tariff rate of 10% on all imports using Section 122 of the Trade Act of 1974.
3. India's holdings of US Treasury securities increased by over 18% during the calendar year 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) None of the above✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The SC struck down (not upheld) the tariffs imposed under IEEPA. Statement 2 is incorrect: Trump initially imposed 10% but later jacked it up to 15%. Statement 3 is incorrect: India reduced (not increased) its US Treasury holdings by 18.96% in 2025.
According to the article, by what percentage did India reduce its holdings of US Treasury securities in calendar year 2025?
- A.15.5%
- B.18.96%✓ Correct Answer
- C.22.3%
- D.25.8%
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Explanation
The article states: "India's holdings in US securities have come down by $42.8 billion, or 18.96%, from $225.7 billion in January 2025 to $182.9 billion as of December 31, 2025." The other options are close distractors.
What is a primary strategic implication of India reducing its investment in US Treasury securities, as discussed in the article?
- A.To increase dependence on the US dollar for trade settlements.
- B.To signal a shift towards de-dollarisation and safeguard against potential sanctions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To deliberately provoke trade tensions with the United States.
- D.To fund increased government borrowing for the Union Budget.
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Explanation
The article links the reduction to global financial uncertainty and the episode where the US blocked Russia's access to its dollar-denominated assets. By diversifying reserves (increasing gold), the RBI aims to reduce over-dependence on one asset class and protect against similar actions, reflecting a de-dollarisation strategy.
The Delhi High Court's judgment dealt with maintenance claims under which two primary laws?
- A.Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and Special Marriage Act, 1954
- B.Indian Penal Code, 1860 and Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
- C.Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 and Section 125 of CrPC✓ Correct Answer
- D.Indian Divorce Act, 1869 and Muslim Personal Law
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions the wife initiated proceedings under Section 125 of the CrPC and under Section 12 of the PWDV Act. The High Court's judgment specifically set aside orders under the PWDV Act and discussed principles relevant to both laws.
Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Court judgment on maintenance:
1. The court held that financial assistance from relatives can be treated as evidence of a wife's earning capacity for denying maintenance.
2. The court emphasized that the 'capacity to earn' is the same as 'actual earning' under maintenance laws.
3. The court reduced the child's maintenance from ₹60,000 to ₹40,000 per month while awarding ₹50,000 to the wife.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The court stated that loans/assistance from parents cannot be construed as evidence of financial independence. Statement 2 is incorrect. The court reiterated the settled distinction that 'capacity to earn' and 'actual earning' are distinct concepts. Statement 3 is correct as per the article's 'Court's directions' section.
According to the Delhi High Court's directions in the news article, what was the monthly maintenance amount finally awarded to the wife?
- A.₹10,000
- B.₹40,000
- C.₹50,000✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹60,000
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Explanation
The article states in the 'Court's directions' section: 'maintenance of Rs 50,000 is awarded in favor of the wife in proceedings under PWDV Act.' ₹10,000 was the initial child maintenance by the magistrate, ₹40,000 is the revised child maintenance, and ₹60,000 was the appellate court's enhanced child maintenance which was reduced.
What is the primary legal significance of the Delhi High Court's observation that 'a homemaker does not sit idle'?
- A.It mandates that all homemakers must seek paid employment.
- B.It recognizes the economic value of domestic labour in maintenance adjudication.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It shifts the burden of proof entirely onto the husband in all cases.
- D.It makes non-earning a disqualification for claiming maintenance.
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Explanation
The core of the judgment is to counter the argument that a non-earning spouse is 'idle'. By stating homemaking enables the earning spouse to function, the court assigns economic value to unpaid domestic work, which is crucial for just maintenance claims. The other options misrepresent the judgment's intent.
Which Russian state agency is responsible for the export of defence products, as mentioned in the news report on the Iran-Russia missile deal?
- A.Rosatom
- B.Rosoboronexport✓ Correct Answer
- C.Gazprom
- D.Sberbank
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the deal was negotiated by 'Russian state arms exporter Rosoboronexport'. It is Russia's sole state intermediary for defence-related exports and imports.
Consider the following statements regarding the Iran-Russia missile deal reported by the Financial Times:
1. The deal is valued at $589 million and involves the supply of 500 'Verba' launch units.
2. The missiles supplied under the deal are designated as '9M336' and total 2,500 in number.
3. The deliveries are scheduled to commence immediately in 2026 and conclude by 2028.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect; the article states deliveries are scheduled in three tranches 'running from 2027 through 2029', not starting in 2026.
According to the Financial Times report, what is the total number of missiles (9M336) Iran is set to receive under the secret deal with Russia?
- A.500 missiles
- B.1,500 missiles
- C.2,500 missiles✓ Correct Answer
- D.5,000 missiles
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Explanation
The report clearly mentions Russia is to deliver '2,500 "9M336" missiles' over three years. The number 500 refers to the 'Verba' launch units, not the missiles.
What is a significant characteristic of the strategic partnership treaty between Russia and Iran, as highlighted in the news article?
- A.It includes a mutual defence clause requiring military aid if either is attacked.
- B.It focuses exclusively on economic cooperation and energy trade.
- C.It does not include a mutual defence clause.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It is a tripartite agreement also involving China.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states, 'Russia has a strategic partnership treaty with Iran, although it does not include a mutual defence clause.' This distinguishes it from alliances like NATO.
The 'Biopharma Shakti' initiative, recently in news, is associated with which sector of the Indian economy?
- A.Renewable Energy
- B.Biotechnology and Pharmaceuticals✓ Correct Answer
- C.Information Technology
- D.Space Technology
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Explanation
The article clearly states that the 'Biopharma Shakti' initiative aims to boost the production of biologics and biosimilars in the biotechnology sector, supported by a ₹10,000 crore budget allocation.
Consider the following statements regarding developments in biotechnology:
1. The Union Budget 2026-27 has allocated ₹10,000 crore specifically for the biotechnology sector.
2. The 'Biopharma Shakti' initiative focuses on promoting renewable energy infrastructure.
3. Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT), Chennai is launching a new biotechnology programme for the academic year 2027.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's mention of a ₹10,000 crore allocation in the Union Budget 2026-27. Statement 2 is incorrect; 'Biopharma Shakti' focuses on biologics and biosimilars in the biotech sector, not renewable energy. Statement 3 is correct as announced by Professor G. Jayaraman from VIT Chennai.
What is the amount allocated for the biotechnology sector in the Union Budget 2026-27, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹5,000 crore
- B.₹7,500 crore
- C.₹10,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹12,500 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "With the Centre announcing a massive investment of ₹10,000 crore in the Union Budget 2026-27 for the biotechnology sector..." This is a precise data point for factual recall.
According to experts cited in the article, what is the primary driver behind the evolution of personalized medicine?
- A.Increased government healthcare spending
- B.Advances in biotechnology and data integration✓ Correct Answer
- C.Global demand for generic drugs
- D.Decentralization of hospital infrastructure
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that biotechnology, integrating genomics, bioinformatics, and AI, is set to drive the evolution of personalized medicine by enabling precise diagnosis and targeted therapies based on individual genetic profiles.
The PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi scheme, which was exploited in the Rajasthan scam, is implemented by which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Finance
- B.Ministry of Rural Development
- C.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
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Explanation
PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) is a central sector scheme fully funded by the Government of India and is implemented by the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Cyber Sarkar' scam in Rajasthan:
1. The scam primarily targeted funds from the PM-KISAN, Rajasthan Social Security Pension Scheme, and the Disaster Management Information System (DMIS).
2. The investigation, named 'Operation Shutterdown', was launched by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
3. A key loophole exploited was the 'auto-approval' facility for applications if they were not processed within a stipulated time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly mentions these three schemes as the primary targets. Statement 2 is incorrect; 'Operation Shutterdown' was launched by Jhalawar police and later taken over by the Rajasthan Police's Special Operations Group (SOG), not the CBI. Statement 3 is correct as the article details how the auto-approval facility in PM-KISAN was exploited by scamsters.
According to the article, what was the approximate amount of cash seized during the 'Operation Shutterdown' raids?
- A.₹1.5 crore
- B.₹3 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹5 crore
- D.₹14.81 crore
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Explanation
The article states: '...seizure of electronic devices, luxury vehicles, and cash worth more than Rs 3 crore.' The other options are distractors: ₹14.81 crore is the amount misappropriated specifically from PM-KISAN, not the cash seized.
What was a primary method used by the scamsters to divert funds under the Rajasthan Social Security Pension Scheme (RajSSP)?
- A.Hacking the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) systems
- B.Creating fake land records to show eligibility for PM-KISAN
- C.Fabricating disability certificates using fake doctor seals✓ Correct Answer
- D.Manipulating the Goods and Services Tax (GST) network
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Explanation
The article explains that for the RajSSP, e-Mitras 'fabricated certificates, using fake doctor seals in some cases, to claim that the individuals had a disability of over 40%, and generated their application IDs on the web portal.' This was a key modus operandi for this specific scheme.
Which U.S. constitutional body delivered the ruling that impacted the India-US trade talks?
- A.The US Congress
- B.The US Supreme Court✓ Correct Answer
- C.The US Trade Representative (USTR)
- D.The White House
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Explanation
The article states the delay in talks came after the US Supreme Court ruled that President Trump overstepped his powers. The Supreme Court is the highest judicial body in the United States.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. The US Supreme Court ruled that tariffs imposed under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) were unconstitutional.
2. Following the court order, the US administration invoked Section 122 of the 1974 Trade Act to impose tariffs.
3. The India-US trade deal, described as unconventional, was fully compliant with all World Trade Organization (WTO) norms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article says the Court ruled Trump overstepped his powers by imposing tariffs under IEEPA; it does not explicitly state the Act itself was ruled unconstitutional. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect as the article says the agreement 'could fall out of the ambit of traditional WTO norms.'
According to the article, what is the overall tariff rate that could be applied under Section 122 of the 1974 Trade Act?
- A.10%
- B.15%✓ Correct Answer
- C.20%
- D.25%
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'Section 122... gives the President temporary powers to impose tariffs, which would take the overall rate to 15 per cent.'
What was a primary consequence of the US Supreme Court's decision, as per the analysis in the article?
- A.It led to the immediate signing of the India-US trade agreement.
- B.It empowered foreign firms to potentially file new lawsuits against certain US tariffs.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It resulted in the permanent cancellation of all US trade deals signed by the Trump administration.
- D.It forced India to immediately grant market access to American products.
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Explanation
The article quotes a trade policy expert saying the court's decision raises questions about the durability of the deals and that 'it is likely that foreign firms will file new lawsuits against IEEPA-backed 'reciprocal' tariff rates.' The other options are contrary to the article's content.
The exemption of tailings recycling from fresh Environmental Clearance falls under the regulatory framework of which key ministry?
- A.Ministry of Mines
- B.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
Environmental Clearance (EC) is granted under the EIA Notification, 2006, which is administered by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Any change in EC requirements is thus a decision of this ministry.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent exemption for tailings recycling in mines:
1. It allows mining companies to recycle tailings within existing lease areas without obtaining a separate Environmental Clearance (EC).
2. The primary objective of this move is to increase the government's revenue from mining royalties.
3. Tailings recycling helps in recovering valuable minerals and water, supporting sustainable resource use.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the news article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the article states the objectives are to reduce regulatory bottlenecks and promote sustainable practices, not primarily to increase royalty revenue. Statement 3 is correct as tailings recycling involves reprocessing waste to recover resources.
What is the stated strategic context for the government's decision to exempt tailings recycling from fresh environmental clearance?
- A.To reduce the import bill for electronic goods
- B.To support the ramp-up of mining activities for the country's energy transition✓ Correct Answer
- C.To increase employment in the agricultural sector
- D.To promote tourism in mining areas
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that 'The development comes at time when the country is ramping up mining activities to support energy transition.' This is the strategic context for the policy change.
According to the news, what was the primary regulatory hurdle that the exemption for tailings recycling aims to remove?
- A.Requirement for a new mining lease
- B.Requirement for a separate Environmental Clearance (EC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Requirement for approval from the Ministry of Mines
- D.Requirement for a public hearing for each recycling project
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Explanation
The article states that earlier, tailing recycling within approved mine areas required a separate EC, leading to delays. The new exemption specifically removes this requirement to reduce regulatory bottlenecks.
Which ministry is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) scheme?
- A.Ministry of Home Affairs
- B.Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- C.Ministry of Tribal Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- D.Ministry of Rural Development
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the PM JANMAN scheme is being implemented through nine line ministries, with the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs launching the IEC campaign for it. This ministry is the nodal agency for tribal welfare policies.
Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. The category was originally created based on the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission and was initially termed 'Primitive Tribal Groups'.
2. The criteria for identifying a group as PVTG include a declining or stagnant population and the practice of pre-agrarian level of technology.
3. The Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) is the only central scheme dedicated to the development of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 2✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the Dhebar Commission led to the PTG category, renamed PVTG in 2006. Statement 2 is correct as it lists two of the five criteria mentioned (declining population and pre-agrarian practices). Statement 3 is incorrect because the article mentions other schemes like the PVTG Development Plan, PMJVM, and PMAAGY, indicating PM JANMAN is not the only scheme.
What is the total financial outlay for the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) scheme as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹18,000 crore
- B.₹20,500 crore
- C.₹24,104 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹28,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that PM JANMAN was launched with an outlay of Rs 24,104 crore. This is a critical data point for Prelims. The other figures are distractors.
What is the primary objective of the first-of-its-kind household survey of PVTGs as discussed in the news article?
- A.To conduct a population census exclusively for PVTGs
- B.To identify and document the unique cultural practices of each PVTG
- C.To capture data for ensuring saturation of welfare schemes and issue entitlement cards✓ Correct Answer
- D.To assess the environmental impact on PVTG habitats
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Explanation
The article clearly states the survey aims 'to plug any gaps in saturation of PVTG households under targeted central and state welfare schemes, and hand out entitlement cards at the end of it.' The other options, while possibly related, are not the stated primary objective of this specific survey.
Which regulatory body was specifically mentioned as investigating the insider trading allegations in the IndusInd Bank case?
- A.Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- B.Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
- D.Enforcement Directorate (ED)
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that 'Market regulator SEBI later restrained Kathpalia... from accessing markets for insider trading in the bank’s scrip.' SEBI is the regulator for securities markets and insider trading falls under its purview.
Consider the following statements regarding banking frauds mentioned in the article:
1. The ₹590 crore fraud at IDFC First Bank was allegedly orchestrated solely by external parties without any employee involvement.
2. In the Punjab National Bank (PNB) case, fraudulent Letters of Undertaking (LoUs) were issued to firms linked to Nirav Modi and Mehul Choksi.
3. The ICICI Bank case involved allegations of a quid pro quo related to loans sanctioned to the Videocon Group when Chanda Kochhar was the MD & CEO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 2 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The article clearly states the IDFC fraud was 'allegedly by its employees and others,' indicating internal collusion. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of the PNB fraud. Statement 3 is correct as the article details the ICICI Bank case involving loans to Videocon and allegations against Chanda Kochhar.
According to the article, what was the approximate amount of the foreign exchange fraud detected at Bank of Baroda's Ashok Vihar branch in 2015?
- A.₹400 crore
- B.₹2,329 crore
- C.₹6,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.₹13,000 crore
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Explanation
The article states: 'In 2015, a foreign exchange fraud allegedly involving Bank of Baroda (BoB) was detected. There was illegal, disguised remittance of around Rs 6,000 crore to Hong Kong from its Ashok Vihar branch.' The other amounts correspond to other frauds: ₹400 Cr (Citibank), ₹2,329 Cr (IndusInd Q4 loss), and ₹13,000 Cr (PNB).
What is the primary systemic issue highlighted by the series of banking frauds discussed in the article, from PNB to IDFC First Bank?
- A.Inadequate capital adequacy ratios as per Basel norms.
- B.Weaknesses in external regulatory frameworks like RBI's supervision.
- C.Governance lapses and failures in internal controls within banks.✓ Correct Answer
- D.High levels of non-performing assets (NPAs) in public sector banks.
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Explanation
The article's core argument is that 'fraud risk often arise from governance lapses and weak internal controls.' It notes that despite RBI tightening supervision (option B), frauds persist due to internal collusion, falsification of records, and governance failures, as evidenced across both public and private sector banks.
The proposed amendment discussed in the news pertains to which specific state legislation?
- A.The Gujarat Special Marriage Act, 1954
- B.The Gujarat Registration of Marriages Act, 2006✓ Correct Answer
- C.The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- D.The Prohibition of Unlawful Religious Conversion Ordinance
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Explanation
The article explicitly states the Gujarat government is proposing amendments to the Gujarat Registration of Marriages Act, 2006 to mandate parental consent. The other acts are either central laws or different state-specific laws mentioned in other contexts.
Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional position on the right to choose a life partner:
1. The right to choose one's partner is an integral part of Article 21's guarantee of personal liberty.
2. The family or community holds a veto power over the marriage choice of consenting adults.
3. The state's duty is to protect the autonomy of individuals in their personal choices, not subject it to paternalistic scrutiny.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as established by Supreme Court judgments like Lata Singh v State of UP (2006). Statement 2 is incorrect; the article clearly states the apex court has made clear that neither family nor community can claim a veto over adult choice. Statement 3 is correct and is a direct quote from the article summarizing the Court's position.
What is the primary constitutional concern raised against the Gujarat government's proposal for mandatory parental consent for marriage registration?
- A.It violates the right to equality under Article 14.
- B.It infringes upon the freedom of religion under Article 25.
- C.It breaches the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It contravenes cultural and educational rights under Article 29.
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Explanation
The article repeatedly emphasizes that the proposal infringes on civil liberties and the private lives of citizens, linking it directly to Article 21's promise of protection of life and personal liberty, which includes the freedom to choose a partner. While other articles might be tangentially involved, Article 21 is the core constitutional principle invoked.
According to the article, which of the following states has NOT been mentioned as having laws that expand state scrutiny over adult relationships?
- A.Uttar Pradesh
- B.Madhya Pradesh
- C.Uttarakhand
- D.Kerala✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh for laws targeting 'forced conversions' and Uttarakhand for its Uniform Civil Code that compels registration of live-in relationships. Kerala is not mentioned in this context within the provided article text.
The illegal construction near the Naneghat Caves was booked under which of the following Acts?
- A.The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act✓ Correct Answer
- B.The Environment Protection Act
- C.The Indian Forest Act
- D.The Wildlife Protection Act
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Explanation
As per the article, the case was registered under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act following a complaint by ASI officials. This Act provides for the preservation of ancient and historical monuments and archaeological sites.
Consider the following statements regarding the developments mentioned in the article:
1. The India-France Year of Innovation 2026 was launched during President Macron's visit, which was his 4th visit to India.
2. The Vibrant Villages Programme Phase 2 aims to cover villages only along the India-China border.
3. The Great Nicobar Island project includes the development of an international container transshipment terminal and a dual-use airport.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states the 2026 India-France Year of Innovation was launched and this was President Macron's 4th visit. Statement 2 is incorrect: Phase 2 covers villages in 17 states/UTs including borders with Bangladesh, Pakistan, etc., not just China. Statement 3 is correct: The project includes an international container transshipment terminal and a dual-use civilian and military airport.
What is the total financial outlay approved for the second phase of the Vibrant Villages Programme, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹5,200 crore
- B.₹6,839 crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹7,500 crore
- D.₹8,210 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the second phase of the Vibrant Villages Programme has a total outlay of Rs 6839 crore till the financial year 2028-2029. The other figures are plausible distractors but incorrect.
The 'MANAV' vision for AI, unveiled at the AI Impact Summit 2026, primarily emphasizes which of the following aspects?
- A.Maximizing economic growth through automation.
- B.Developing AI solely for military and strategic applications.
- C.Ensuring AI is guided by human ethics, accountability, and sovereignty.✓ Correct Answer
- D.Promoting open-source AI models without any regulatory framework.
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Explanation
The 'MANAV' vision, as detailed in the article, stands for Moral and ethical systems, Accountable governance, National sovereignty, Accessible and inclusive, and Valid and legitimate. Its core is an ethical, human-centric, and sovereign approach to AI, not purely economic, military, or unregulated development.
Which institute hosts the World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) mentioned in the article?
- A.NITI Aayog
- B.The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)✓ Correct Answer
- C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- D.Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 25th Edition of the World Sustainable Development Summit is hosted by TERI. NITI Aayog is mentioned for its report, but not as the host. UNEP and MoEFCC are not mentioned as hosts in this context.
Consider the following statements regarding climate finance as discussed in the article:
1. Current global annual financial flows for climate action are estimated to be about $1.9 trillion.
2. According to a NITI Aayog report, India currently receives climate financial flows of about $135 billion annually.
3. To stay on the 1.5-degree Celsius trajectory, the required annual global climate financial flow is between $6 to $9 trillion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The article states 'Current global flows estimated at about $1.9 trillion annually'. Statement 2 is correct: It mentions 'current flows are only about $135 billion' for India. Statement 3 is correct: It states the required flow is '$6-9 trillion required to stay on the 1.5-degree trajectory'. All facts are directly from the article.
According to the NITI Aayog report cited, what is the total financing need for India's Net Zero transition by 2070?
- A.$5-10 trillion
- B.$10-20 trillion✓ Correct Answer
- C.$20-30 trillion
- D.$30-40 trillion
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Explanation
The article clearly states: 'India alone needs $10-20 trillion... by 2070 to meet its goal.' The other figures are distractors not mentioned in the article.
What was a key strategic shift in approach observed at COP30, as per the article?
- A.A focus on setting new, more ambitious emission reduction targets for all nations.
- B.A shift from seeking consensus-based legal legitimacy to focusing on the implementation of agreed actions.✓ Correct Answer
- C.An emphasis on penalizing nations that do not meet their NDC commitments.
- D.A move to exclude major economies that have withdrawn from previous agreements.
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Explanation
The article explains that the COP30 presidency focused 'more on the implementation of agreed climate actions than on seeking consensus-based legal legitimacy for future actions,' leading to the creation of the Global Implementation Accelerator. The other options describe potential actions but are not the shift highlighted in the article.
Under which US law did the Supreme Court strike down the Trump administration's 'reciprocal tariffs'?
- A.Trade Expansion Act of 1962
- B.International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act
- D.Trade Act of 1974
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the US Supreme Court struck down tariffs imposed under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA), holding that its emergency powers were unjustified for this purpose.
Consider the following statements regarding the US Supreme Court's tariff ruling:
1. The Court held that emergency powers under the IEEPA cannot be used as a revenue-raising device.
2. The ruling completely denies the President any authority to impose tariffs under any circumstance.
3. The judgment leaves the President with limited tools such as Section 122 of the Trade Act of 1974.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article says the Court held emergency powers under IEEPA cannot be used for revenue-raising. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clarifies the ruling 'does not deny the President authority to impose tariffs' but requires Congressional sanction for broader authority. Statement 3 is correct as it mentions the President retains tools like Section 122.
According to the article, what is the approximate effective US tariff rate after the Supreme Court ruling and Trump's subsequent action under Section 122?
- A.9.1%
- B.13.7%✓ Correct Answer
- C.16.9%
- D.20%
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Explanation
The article states that after the ruling, the average effective tariff dropped to about 9.1%, but Trump then invoked Section 122 to impose a 15% tariff on all imports, making the effective tariff approximately 13.7%.
What is a primary implication of the US Supreme Court's ruling for countries like India, as per the analysis in the article?
- A.India must immediately sign the pending bilateral trade deal with the US.
- B.India should focus on negotiating targeted concessions for labour-intensive exports.✓ Correct Answer
- C.India needs to impose retaliatory tariffs on US goods.
- D.India should withdraw from all multilateral trade forums.
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Explanation
The article's analysis suggests it would be 'more prudent for India to negotiate targeted concessions for labour-intensive exports' rather than proceeding with a broad arrangement that was largely a 'statement of intent' under the now-invalid tariff framework.
Which ministry is responsible for releasing India's first anti-terror policy, PRAHAAR?
- A.Ministry of Defence
- B.Ministry of Home Affairs✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of External Affairs
- D.Ministry of Law and Justice
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) released the PRAHAAR policy. MHA is the nodal ministry for internal security, counter-terrorism, and law and order in India.
Consider the following statements regarding the news:
1. India's first anti-terror policy, PRAHAAR, was released by the Ministry of Home Affairs in February 2026.
2. The policy only focuses on threats from across the border and does not mention cyber-attacks.
3. The final electoral roll of Tamil Nadu, published after Special Intensive Revision (SIR), has over 5.6 crore voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because the policy explicitly mentions threats from 'criminal hackers and nation states' through cyber-attacks. Statement 3 is correct as the final roll shows 5,67,07,380 electors, which is over 5.6 crore.
According to the final electoral roll published after Special Intensive Revision (SIR), what is the total number of electors in Tamil Nadu?
- A.5.27 crore
- B.5.47 crore
- C.5.67 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.5.87 crore
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Explanation
The article provides the exact figure of 5,67,07,380 electors, which is 5.67 crore. This is a precise data point crucial for administrative and electoral studies.
What is a key implication of Chief Justice of India Surya Kant's observation on the Supreme Court's 2018 hate crime judgment?
- A.It mandates stricter punishments for hate crimes across all states.
- B.It calls for the formation of a new central agency to investigate mob violence.
- C.It suggests a shift from broad judicial directives to a case-specific approach for enforcement.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It recommends the repeal of laws related to cow protection.
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Explanation
The CJI termed the 'general directions' from the 2018 judgment as 'unmanageable' and favored an 'individualistic approach, taking up each crime on its singular facts and merits'. This indicates a judicial preference for addressing rights violations on a case-by-case basis rather than issuing blanket directives.
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) functions under the administrative control of which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- B.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways✓ Correct Answer
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
As per the NHAI Act, 1988, the National Highways Authority of India is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, responsible for the development and management of national highways.
Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court's observations in the recent NHAI land acquisition case:
1. The Court agreed that its 2019 verdict in the Tarsem Singh case should apply only prospectively to reduce financial burden.
2. The Court held that Section 3J of the NHAI Act created an intelligible differentia between landowners.
3. The Court observed that pre-2018 land acquisition cases which have attained finality cannot be reopened for grant of interest on compensation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Only 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) Both 1 and 3
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The SC rejected NHAI's plea for prospective application, reaffirming the retrospective principle of the 2019 verdict. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court held Section 3J created an UNintelligible differentia, violating Article 14. Statement 3 is correct as per the article, which states the SC observed pre-2018 cases cannot be reopened.
What approximate financial burden did the Solicitor General cite as the implication of the Supreme Court's 2019 verdict on NHAI land acquisition?
- A.Approximately ₹100 crore
- B.Approximately ₹5,000 crore
- C.Approximately ₹32,000 crore✓ Correct Answer
- D.Approximately ₹1,00,000 crore
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Explanation
The article explicitly mentions that the Solicitor General, representing NHAI, stated the 2019 judgment imposed a huge financial burden of approximately ₹32,000 crore, contrasting an earlier figure of ₹100 crore mentioned in the petition.
What was the primary constitutional rationale given by the Supreme Court for striking down Section 3J of the NHAI Act in its 2019 verdict?
- A.It violated the Right to Property under Article 300A.
- B.It was inconsistent with the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- C.It violated the Right to Equality under Article 14.✓ Correct Answer
- D.It infringed upon the federal structure of the Constitution.
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Explanation
The article states the Supreme Court held that Section 3J, by denying solatium and interest to a specific class of landowners (those acquired under NHAI Act between 1997-2015), created an arbitrary classification lacking intelligible differentia, thus violating Article 14.
The research on the new refrigerant-free cooling technology was published in which international journal?
- A.International Journal of Refrigeration
- B.Energy Conversion and Management✓ Correct Answer
- C.Applied Thermal Engineering
- D.Renewable and Sustainable Energy Reviews
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Explanation
As per the article, the study has been published in the international journal 'Energy Conversion and Management'. This is a direct factual recall from the news.
Consider the following statements regarding the new cooling technology developed by BITS Hyderabad researchers:
1. It uses powdered silica gel coated on heat exchangers for dehumidification.
2. The system requires high-grade electrical energy similar to conventional air-conditioners.
3. It is particularly promising for application in humid cities like Mumbai and Chennai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2 and 3
- C.(C) Only 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states the system uses powdered silica gel. Statement 2 is incorrect because the technology drastically reduces electrical power requirements by using ultra-low-grade heat. Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions the technology is promising for humid cities such as Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.
What is the range of ultra-low-grade heat temperature required to operate the new refrigerant-free cooling system developed at BITS Hyderabad?
- A.20-30°C
- B.40-50°C✓ Correct Answer
- C.60-70°C
- D.80-100°C
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the system enables operation using ultra-low-grade heat at just 40-50°C. This temperature is easily available as industrial waste heat or from low-temperature renewable thermal sources.
What is the primary significance of the new air-conditioning technology being 'refrigerant-free'?
- A.It makes the system significantly cheaper to manufacture.
- B.It eliminates the use of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), which are potent greenhouse gases.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It allows the system to be portable and used in remote areas.
- D.It increases the cooling capacity of the system manifold.
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Explanation
The primary environmental benefit of eliminating conventional refrigerants is the avoidance of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). HFCs, though non-ozone depleting, have a very high global warming potential (GWP). Phasing them out is the goal of the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol.
Which US government office is headed by the United States Trade Representative (USTR) and leads international trade negotiations?
- A.Office of the Comptroller of the Currency
- B.Office of the United States Trade Representative✓ Correct Answer
- C.Department of Commerce
- D.International Trade Commission
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Explanation
The article mentions US Trade Representative Jamieson Greer. The USTR is the lead negotiator for US trade agreements and heads the Office of the United States Trade Representative, an agency within the Executive Office of the President.
Consider the following statements regarding the recent developments in India-US trade talks:
1. The US Supreme Court upheld President Trump's use of the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) to impose tariffs.
2. Clause 8 in the India-US Framework Agreement allows either country to modify commitments if the other changes its tariffs.
3. The new US tariff of 15% on Indian goods is permanent and does not require Congressional approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2✓ Correct Answer
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The US Supreme Court ruled that President Trump overstepped his powers using IEEPA for tariffs, thus striking it down. Statement 2 is correct as per the article's description of Clause 8. Statement 3 is incorrect: The 15% tariff under Section 122 is temporary (~5 months/150 days) and requires Congressional approval to extend.
According to the article, what was the cumulative tariff India was facing on its exports to the US since August 2025, before recent changes?
- A.25%
- B.34%
- C.45%
- D.50%✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: "India had been facing a cumulative tariff of 50% into the US since August 2025 (reciprocal tariff plus additional tariffs for import of Russian oil)..." The other figures are related to different time points or other countries.
What is the primary strategic implication of Clause 8 in the India-US trade framework for India, as discussed in the article?
- A.It mandates immediate market access for US agricultural products.
- B.It provides India legal grounds to pause or renegotiate its commitments if US tariff policy changes.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It automatically lowers Indian tariffs on US electronics and auto parts.
- D.It requires India to align all its economic policies with US interests.
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Explanation
The article's core analysis is that Clause 8, an insertion from the Indian side, offers 'wriggle room.' It allows India to 'modify its commitments' if US tariffs change, which is precisely what happened after the SC ruling. This clause is seen as a strategic tool for recalibration, not a mandate for specific concessions.
Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL), mentioned in the context of securing critical mineral supply chains, is a joint venture under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Mines✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
- C.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- D.Ministry of Heavy Industries
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that KABIL (Khanij Bidesh India Limited) is a joint venture of three PSUs (NALCO, HCL, MECL) under the Ministry of Mines. It was formed in 2019 to secure supply chains for strategic minerals like lithium and cobalt.
Consider the following statements regarding Sodium-ion (Na-ion) batteries:
1. They can be safely discharged to zero volts (0V) for transportation, unlike Lithium-ion batteries.
2. They use aluminium in their anodes, which is cheaper and lighter than the copper used in Lithium-ion batteries.
3. They have a lower energy density and are heavier than Lithium-ion batteries, making them unsuitable for long-range EVs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as the article states Na-ion batteries can discharge to 0V for transport, reducing fire risk. Statement 2 is correct as Na-ion uses cheaper aluminium foil anodes. Statement 3 is correct as sodium's higher atomic mass makes the batteries bulkier and heavier, a key hurdle mentioned for high-performance vehicles.
What is the outlay (in ₹ crore) for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) battery storage, as mentioned in the article?
- A.₹10,000 Crore
- B.₹18,100 Crore✓ Correct Answer
- C.₹25,000 Crore
- D.₹50,000 Crore
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Explanation
The article specifically mentions the PLI scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) has an outlay of ₹18,100 Crore. This scheme is central to promoting domestic manufacturing of alternative battery chemistries like Lithium-ion and Sodium-ion.
According to the article, what is the primary strategic advantage for India in shifting towards Sodium-ion battery technology?
- A.To immediately replace all Lithium-ion batteries in smartphones and laptops.
- B.To reduce geopolitical dependence on concentrated Lithium supply chains and Chinese processing dominance.✓ Correct Answer
- C.To achieve a higher energy density than currently available Lithium-ion batteries.
- D.To primarily reduce the weight of electric vehicles for better performance.
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Explanation
The article emphasizes that with 60% of lithium in the 'Lithium Triangle' and China controlling over 80% of battery cell output, India risks a 'middleman trap'. Sodium, being the 6th most abundant element, offers a path to reduce this import dependency and democratize battery markets, which is the core strategic advantage discussed.
Which statutory body replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) as the primary regulator of medical education in India?
- A.National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS)
- B.National Medical Commission (NMC)✓ Correct Answer
- C.Medical Council of India (MCI) still functions
- D.Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
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Explanation
The National Medical Commission (NMC) is the statutory body established under the National Medical Commission Act, 2019, which replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI). The article mentions NMC alongside MoHFW in recommending the NEET-PG percentile reduction.
Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-PG percentile reduction case:
1. The reduction in the qualifying percentile to zero was recommended by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the National Medical Commission (NMC).
2. The primary argument of the petitioners is that the reduction will benefit private medical institutions disproportionately.
3. The Government's affidavit states that the purpose of NEET-PG is to certify minimum clinical competence of candidates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article: 'NBEMS had informed the Court that percentile reduction was done following recommendations of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) and the National Medical Commission (NMC).' Statement 2 is incorrect; the petitioners' concern is about academic standards and patient safety, not disproportionate benefit to private institutions. Statement 3 is incorrect; the affidavit states the opposite: 'purpose of the NEET-PG is not to certify minimum competence... but to generate an inter se merit list.'
According to the Centre's affidavit in the Supreme Court, how many postgraduate seats in the All India Quota (AIQ) remained vacant after Round 2 of NEET-PG 2025 counselling?
- A.5,213
- B.9,621✓ Correct Answer
- C.2,988
- D.70,000
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Explanation
The article explicitly states: 'In NEET-PG 2025, after completion of Round 2 of counselling, a total of 9,621 seats remained vacant in All India Quota (AIQ) across various specialities.' 5,213 is the subset of these vacancies in Government medical colleges. 2,988 seats remained vacant after Round 3. 70,000 is the total number of PG seats available for the session.
What is the Centre's primary justification, as per its affidavit, for reducing the NEET-PG qualifying percentile to zero?
- A.To increase the number of specialists in rural areas
- B.To prevent wastage of publicly funded infrastructure and seat vacancies✓ Correct Answer
- C.To align with international medical education standards
- D.To reduce the financial burden on medical aspirants
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Explanation
The article quotes the Centre's argument that leaving seats vacant 'would mean wastage of infrastructure, faculty resources, and hospital facilities built with public funds.' It also states the move 'was not meant to benefit private institutions, but to prevent large-scale vacancy of seats, including in government colleges created through public expenditure.' The other options are not mentioned as primary justifications.
The concept of 'issue-based alignments' in India's foreign policy is most closely associated with which Indian leader?
- A.Prime Minister Narendra Modi
- B.External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar✓ Correct Answer
- C.Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
- D.Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar has called India's approach 'issue-based alignments.' This is a key phrase describing India's contemporary foreign policy of flexible partnerships based on specific national interests.
Consider the following statements regarding India's entry into the Pax Silica alliance:
1. It is a U.S.-led coalition focused on securing infrastructure for Artificial Intelligence and critical minerals.
2. A primary benefit for India is gaining immediate, large-scale capacity for processing and extracting critical minerals.
3. The alliance could help diversify global technology supply chains away from over-reliance on a single country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article's description. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article clearly states 'India does not currently possess significant capacity in processing critical minerals nor does it extract them in large quantities.' Statement 3 is correct as the article mentions India's role in providing demand and talent to justify new, non-China supply chains.
According to the article, what is a potential economic risk for India from joining the Pax Silica alliance?
- A.Imposition of higher import tariffs by the European Union
- B.Retaliatory trade friction and slower market access from China✓ Correct Answer
- C.Reduction in foreign direct investment from the United States
- D.Withdrawal of Generalized System of Preferences (GSP) benefits
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Explanation
The article explicitly lists 'potential economic retaliation from China, such as trade friction, slower market access, or pressure on upstream inputs' as a key implication for India. The other options, while plausible in general geopolitics, are not mentioned in the provided text.
What is described as the most important implication of India's participation in Pax Silica for the other member countries?
- A.India's contribution of advanced semiconductor manufacturing equipment
- B.India's potential to shift the centre of gravity for global manufacturing and consumption✓ Correct Answer
- C.India's strategic military partnerships in the Indo-Pacific region
- D.India's vast reserves of rare earth elements and critical minerals
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Explanation
The article states that 'for the rest of the world, including the Pax Silica group, the more important implication is in India’s potential to shift the centre of gravity for global manufacturing and consumption.' This highlights India's market size and demand as a key strategic asset for the alliance. The other options are either incorrect or not highlighted as the 'most important' factor.
Which international organisation developed the 'Global Minimum Tax' framework, also known as Pillar Two, mentioned in the context of fiscal pressure on GCCs?
- A.World Trade Organization (WTO)
- B.International Monetary Fund (IMF)
- C.Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)✓ Correct Answer
- D.World Bank
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the 'Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development’s Global Minimum Tax (Pillar Two)' alters the tax arbitrage benefit for MNCs. The OECD is the body responsible for developing this international tax reform framework.
Consider the following statements regarding Global Capability Centres (GCCs) in India:
1. Over 1,800 GCCs in India employ nearly two million professionals and 58% of them are investing heavily in Agentic AI.
2. The primary challenge for GCCs is the saturation of talent in metro cities like Bengaluru, with no demand for skills in AI security or cloud architecture.
3. Indian GCCs handled 13.7% of global cyber-attack incidents as per a 2023 report, making cybersecurity a major operational mandate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3✓ Correct Answer
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the challenge is a widening 'talent gap' and shortage of niche skills, not saturation. Statement 3 is correct as the article cites a Cyfirma Report (2023) stating India-based centres handle 13.7% of global cyber-attack incidents.
According to the article, what percentage of Global Capability Centres (GCCs) in India are investing heavily in Agentic AI systems?
- A.48%
- B.52%
- C.58%✓ Correct Answer
- D.65%
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Explanation
The article states: 'Today, nearly 58% of GCCs in India are investing heavily in Agentic AI...'. The other options are plausible but incorrect distractors.
What is a significant socio-economic impact of the GCC boom on India's domestic landscape, as highlighted in the article?
- A.It has led to a decrease in software exports due to a focus on the domestic market.
- B.It has catalysed high-value employment and stimulated regional development in Tier-II and Tier-III cities.✓ Correct Answer
- C.It has caused a massive shift of the workforce from the manufacturing sector to low-end service jobs.
- D.It has resulted in the closure of traditional IT hubs in metropolitan areas.
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that for the Indian population, the GCC boom has 'catalysed high-value employment and regional development', with growth trickling down to cities like Coimbatore, Indore, and Kochi. This reduces strain on saturated metros and stimulates local economies.
The Chennai Port Authority, mentioned in the news, operates under which Union Ministry?
- A.Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways✓ Correct Answer
- B.Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- C.Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
- D.Ministry of Finance
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Explanation
Major Ports in India, including Chennai Port, are administered by the Union Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. This ministry is responsible for the formulation and administration of rules and regulations for shipping and ports sector.
Consider the following statements regarding the Chennai Outer Harbour Project:
1. The project is being revived for the third time and its revised cost estimate is about ₹10,000 crore.
2. The primary objective is to handle bulk carriers for coal and iron ore imports.
3. The project will be implemented under a Hybrid Annuity Model where the private firm bears 60% of the project cost.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.(A) Only 1✓ Correct Answer
- B.(B) Only 2
- C.(C) Both 1 and 3
- D.(D) All three
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Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect; the objective is to handle large container vessels (exceeding 20,000 TEU), not specifically bulk carriers. Statement 3 is incorrect; under the proposed HAM, the port will bear 60% of the cost, not the private firm.
According to the news, what is the carrying capacity of the large vessels that the new Chennai Outer Harbour aims to handle?
- A.Exceeds 10,000 TEU
- B.Exceeds 15,000 TEU
- C.Exceeds 18,000 TEU
- D.Exceeds 20,000 TEU✓ Correct Answer
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Explanation
The article explicitly states that the port aims to handle some of the world's largest vessels, 'whose carrying capacity exceeds 20,000 TEU (twenty-foot equivalent unit).' The other options are plausible distractors for different classes of container ships.
What is the primary infrastructural limitation of the existing Chennai inner harbour that the new outer harbour project seeks to address?
- A.Inadequate road and rail connectivity
- B.Limitations with respect to draft and berth length✓ Correct Answer
- C.Lack of container handling cranes
- D.Absence of a dedicated cruise terminal
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Explanation
The article clearly mentions that 'the existing inner harbour has certain limitations with respect to draft and berth length.' Draft refers to the depth of water a ship requires, and berth length is the space for docking. The new outer harbour is planned with deeper draft to accommodate larger vessels.
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For UPSC, MPSC, SSC, Banking & Teaching exams, reading current affairs is only half the work. Practising questions immediately after reading triggers active recall, which is scientifically proven to improve long-term retention compared to passive reading.
- Identify Knowledge Gaps: MCQs reveal what you missed, specific percentages, committee names, constitutional articles, or ministry affiliations.
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What are the important current affairs questions for 23 February 2026?▼
This page contains 112 current affairs questions from 23 February 2026, covering multiple topics. All questions are sourced from The Hindu and Indian Express with detailed explanations.
How to use 23 February 2026 current affairs questions for UPSC preparation?▼
Read each question carefully, attempt an answer mentally, then check the correct option and read the explanation. Focus on statement-based questions for Prelims practice and link each topic to your static GK notes. Use the interactive quiz for timed practice.
How many current affairs questions should I practice daily?▼
Ideally 20-40 questions daily. Practicing daily current affairs MCQs from The Hindu and Indian Express improves both speed and conceptual clarity for UPSC, SSC and Banking exams.
Are these questions based on The Hindu and Indian Express?▼
Yes. All daily current affairs questions on this platform are sourced from important news articles published in The Hindu and Indian Express, filtered for exam relevance.
What is the best way to use these question pages for revision?▼
Read the question and attempt an answer mentally, then reveal the explanation. Use the Table of Contents to jump to topics you are weak in. Finish by taking the linked interactive quiz for timed practice.
All Questions in This Set
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- Q5. article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speec…
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- Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court …
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- Q14. Consider the following statements regarding India's first anti…
- Q15. According to the PRAHAAR policy, terrorist groups are increasi…
- Q16. is a key 'way forward' measure suggested by the PRAHAAR policy…
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- Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the amendments to …
- Q19. According to the amended India-France DTAC, what is the new wi…
- Q20. is a primary expected outcome of deleting the Most-Favoured-Na…
- Q21. constitutional article empowers the Supreme Court to issue dir…
- Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q23. In which year did the Supreme Court deliver the landmark Tehse…
- Q24. is the primary implication of Chief Justice Surya Kant's remar…
- Q25. The US Supreme Court recently struck down tariffs imposed unde…
- Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the recent develop…
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- Q28. is a primary strategic implication of India reducing its inves…
- Q29. The Delhi High Court's judgment dealt with maintenance claims …
- Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi High Cou…
- Q31. According to the Delhi High Court's directions in the news art…
- Q32. is the primary legal significance of the Delhi High Court's ob…
- Q33. Russian state agency is responsible for the export of defence …
- Q34. Consider the following statements regarding the Iran-Russia mi…
- Q35. According to the Financial Times report, what is the total num…
- Q36. is a significant characteristic of the strategic partnership t…
- Q37. The 'Biopharma Shakti' initiative, recently in news, is associ…
- Q38. Consider the following statements regarding developments in bi…
- Q39. is the amount allocated for the biotechnology sector in the Un…
- Q40. According to experts cited in the article, what is the primary…
- Q41. The PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi scheme, which was exploited in the R…
- Q42. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Cyber Sarkar'…
- Q43. According to the article, what was the approximate amount of c…
- Q44. was a primary method used by the scamsters to divert funds und…
- Q45. U.S. constitutional body delivered the ruling that impacted th…
- Q46. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. The …
- Q47. According to the article, what is the overall tariff rate that…
- Q48. was a primary consequence of the US Supreme Court's decision, …
- Q49. The exemption of tailings recycling from fresh Environmental C…
- Q50. Consider the following statements regarding the recent exempti…
- Q51. is the stated strategic context for the government's decision …
- Q52. According to the news, what was the primary regulatory hurdle …
- Q53. ministry is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the P…
- Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulne…
- Q55. is the total financial outlay for the Pradhan Mantri Janjati A…
- Q56. is the primary objective of the first-of-its-kind household su…
- Q57. regulatory body was specifically mentioned as investigating th…
- Q58. Consider the following statements regarding banking frauds men…
- Q59. According to the article, what was the approximate amount of t…
- Q60. is the primary systemic issue highlighted by the series of ban…
- Q61. The proposed amendment discussed in the news pertains to which…
- Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional…
- Q63. is the primary constitutional concern raised against the Gujar…
- Q64. According to the article, which of the following states has NO…
- Q65. The illegal construction near the Naneghat Caves was booked un…
- Q66. Consider the following statements regarding the developments m…
- Q67. is the total financial outlay approved for the second phase of…
- Q68. The 'MANAV' vision for AI, unveiled at the AI Impact Summit 20…
- Q69. institute hosts the World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS…
- Q70. Consider the following statements regarding climate finance as…
- Q71. According to the NITI Aayog report cited, what is the total fi…
- Q72. was a key strategic shift in approach observed at COP30, as pe…
- Q73. Under which US law did the Supreme Court strike down the Trump…
- Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the US Supreme Cou…
- Q75. According to the article, what is the approximate effective US…
- Q76. is a primary implication of the US Supreme Court's ruling for …
- Q77. ministry is responsible for releasing India's first anti-terro…
- Q78. Consider the following statements regarding the news: 1. Indi…
- Q79. According to the final electoral roll published after Special …
- Q80. is a key implication of Chief Justice of India Surya Kant's ob…
- Q81. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) functions unde…
- Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court'…
- Q83. approximate financial burden did the Solicitor General cite as…
- Q84. was the primary constitutional rationale given by the Supreme …
- Q85. The research on the new refrigerant-free cooling technology wa…
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- Q89. US government office is headed by the United States Trade Repr…
- Q90. Consider the following statements regarding the recent develop…
- Q91. According to the article, what was the cumulative tariff India…
- Q92. is the primary strategic implication of Clause 8 in the India-…
- Q93. Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL), mentioned in the context of s…
- Q94. Consider the following statements regarding Sodium-ion (Na-ion…
- Q95. is the outlay (in ₹ crore) for the Production Linked Incentive…
- Q96. According to the article, what is the primary strategic advant…
- Q97. statutory body replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) as …
- Q98. Consider the following statements regarding the NEET-PG percen…
- Q99. According to the Centre's affidavit in the Supreme Court, how …
- Q100. is the Centre's primary justification, as per its affidavit, f…
- Q101. The concept of 'issue-based alignments' in India's foreign pol…
- Q102. Consider the following statements regarding India's entry into…
- Q103. According to the article, what is a potential economic risk fo…
- Q104. is described as the most important implication of India's part…
- Q105. international organisation developed the 'Global Minimum Tax' …
- Q106. Consider the following statements regarding Global Capability …
- Q107. According to the article, what percentage of Global Capability…
- Q108. is a significant socio-economic impact of the GCC boom on Indi…
- Q109. The Chennai Port Authority, mentioned in the news, operates un…
- Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Chennai Outer …
- Q111. According to the news, what is the carrying capacity of the la…
- Q112. is the primary infrastructural limitation of the existing Chen…