28 September 2026, Questions & Answers

Explanation

The article states Poompuhar was the capital of early Cholas, located at Cauvery mouth, and recent excavations recovered a West Asian torpedo jar. Korkai was Pandya port, Muchiri was Chera, Arikamedu is Roman trade site.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (Article 324). Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 18 of the 2023 Act says if not unanimous, matter decided by majority opinion, not CEC alone. Statement 3 is correct: as per Supreme Court judgment in T.N. Seshan vs. Union of India (1995), all three have equal say.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'a fragment of a fine-ceramic West Asian torpedo jar, with an estimated total diameter of 30 cm to 35 cm.' The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The article describes the portal as 'matching crowdsourced data on missing persons with official lists of the dead and injured.' It also did mapping, but the primary function mentioned first is matching missing persons.

Explanation

The Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of States, signed in 1933, is the foundational treaty that codifies the declarative theory of statehood in international law, listing the four standard criteria mentioned in the question.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article explicitly states it is the 'first-ever UN Declaration on Sea Level Rise'. Statement 2 is incorrect because the declaration allows states to *maintain* their maritime zones despite physical changes, not alter them. Statement 3 is correct as the declaration affirms the 'presumption of continued statehood'.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the WMO's 2025 report found the global mean sea level in 2025 was comparable to the record-high levels observed in 2024 in the satellite altimetry record.

Explanation

The declaration addresses the legal gap by affirming the 'presumption of continued statehood' for nations affected by sea-level rise, ensuring their sovereignty and UN membership persist despite the physical loss of territory under the Montevideo Convention criteria.

Explanation

The article mentions that Electoral Commissioners Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Vivek Joshi recorded objections to decisions under Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar. Hence Gyanesh Kumar is the CEC. Rajiv Kumar is not mentioned and may be a distractor.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article states SIR 'shifts the onus of enrolment from the state to the elector.' Statement 2 is incorrect because the SC did not declare it unconstitutional; it 'engaged the SIR in theory and not in practice.' Statement 3 is correct: 'over nine in 10 appeals decided by West Bengal's tribunals have restored deleted voters.' Hence option C.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that 'Electoral Commissioners Sukhbir Singh Sandhu and Vivek Joshi had recorded 14 objections to decisions under Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar.' The other options are close distractors.

Explanation

The editorial's final line states: 'The ECI must be reconstituted by a selection committee that does not give the government an overriding majority. Anything less would be a travesty of institutional democracy.' Other options are not suggested in the article.

Explanation

The Election Commission of India (ECI) derives its authority from Article 324 of the Constitution and is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections, including the preparation of accurate electoral rolls as guided by the RPA, 1950.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The 'right to vote' is not a fundamental right; it is a statutory right under the RPA, 1951. Statement 2 is correct as per the Kuldip Nayar judgment. Statement 3 is correct as Article 326 grants universal adult suffrage to citizens aged 18 and above.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that 97 eligible voters from Goa were excluded from the electoral roll after the centralised ECINet software prevented ground-level Electoral Registration Officers (ERO) from reversing decisions.

Explanation

Elevating the 'right to vote' to fundamental status would subject the EC's authority to a higher standard of judicial review reserved for fundamental rights (Articles 19 and 21), ensuring that administrative decisions like centralized software design do not override the citizen's claim to be counted.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution provides for an Election Commission for the superintendence, direction, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Articles 356, 226, and 142 relate to President's rule, High Court powers, and Supreme Court's plenary powers, respectively.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Article 324 establishes the ECI. Statement 2 is incorrect: The appointment is made by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee (PM, Leader of Opposition, and a Union Cabinet Minister), not solely on the PM's advice. Statement 3 is correct: The 2023 Act's Section 17 states that business shall be transacted according to the Act.

Explanation

The survey showed that pilgrimage and religious trips accounted for 48% of all overnight domestic tourism trips. Holiday trips were 22%, health and medical reasons were nearly 30%, and social/shopping purposes were the leading reasons for same-day trips (nearly 60%).

Explanation

The Supreme Court emphasized that an accused released due to violation of fundamental rights (like not being informed of grounds of arrest under Article 22(1)) is not 'enlarged on bail' but released from illegal detention. The guidelines prevent re-arrest without proper procedure, safeguarding constitutional rights.

Explanation

The notification dated 1 June 2001 was issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, which is the nodal ministry for disability affairs in India. This notification specifically includes inability resulting from affliction of the musculoskeletal and/or nervous system under 'locomotor disability.'

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the court ruled that a UDID card cannot be contradicted by a medical board. Statement 2 is correct as the court cited the Om Rathod precedent. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court did not direct inclusion under ESE Rules; it set aside the cancellation based on the UDID card and the 2001 notification.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the UDID card certified the candidate's locomotor disability to the extent of 45%. This percentage is above the 40% threshold required for reservation under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

Explanation

The court, relying on the Om Rathod precedent, held that a person with a valid disability certificate cannot be subjected to a medical examination that concludes contrary to the certificate. This ensures the finality and sanctity of the certification process under the RPwD Act, 2016.

Explanation

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (amended in 2006) provides for the constitution of State Human Rights Commissions. The Constitution does not directly establish SHRCs; they are statutory bodies. Options C and D are not existing acts.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: the commission has been non-functional since 2022. Statement 2 is incorrect: the committee includes the minister in-charge of Home, not the Chief Justice. Statement 3 is correct: the court directed the Chief Secretary to file an affidavit by January 8, 2027. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The Jharkhand High Court directed the state to fill vacancies and make the commission fully functional within three months. The compliance affidavit is due by January 8, 2027, which aligns with the three-month timeline from the order date (September 28, 2026).

Explanation

The court observed that Jharkhand had witnessed alleged human rights violations including custodial deaths, and therefore a functional SHRC was necessary. The other options are not supported by the article. The court's focus was on protecting human rights, not revenue or workload.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly passing the resolution. J&K is a Union Territory with a legislature, unlike Ladakh which has no legislature.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the article says the resolution was moved by CM Omar Abdullah. Statement 2 is false because BJP MLAs walked out in protest. Statement 3 is correct as the resolution demands urgent restoration of full statehood.

Explanation

The article states that 'the resolution was taken up for discussion amid 10 amendments moved by legislators.' 8 of these sought to broaden scope to include restoration of special status.

Explanation

The article's headline and content clearly state that the resolution demands 'full statehood' for the Union Territory. While some amendments seek restoration of special status, the core demand is full statehood. Options A and D are part of other actions but not the primary objective.

Explanation

The CAQM operates under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), as established by the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021. The Union Environment Minister chaired the meeting, confirming this linkage.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: complete construction ban from Dec10 to Jan20. Statement 2 is incorrect: essential services like hospitals, public transport, power, water supply, sanitation, disaster management, and pollution-control agencies are exempt. Statement 3 is correct: parking fees doubled from Nov1 to Feb28, except Delhi Metro Rail Corporation parking.

Explanation

The article states: 'A complete ban on construction and demolition, barring urgent government and emergency works, will apply from December 10 to January 20.' Option A (Nov1-Jan31) is the period for dust-generating demolition and open civil construction prohibition, not the complete ban. Option C is the period for doubled parking fees. Option D is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article emphasizes that for the first time, several measures are made mandatory in advance during the winter pollution period, rather than GRAP measures that kick in depending on air quality forecasts. This proactive approach aims to prevent severe pollution episodes. Options A, C, and D are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The resolution was passed by the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly, as clearly stated in the article. The J&K Assembly is the elected legislature of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct – Omar Abdullah moved the resolution on September 25. Statement 2 is incorrect – the BJP walked out and called the resolution controversial; they did not support it. Statement 3 is correct – Omar argued that linking statehood to militancy leaves the decision to Pakistan.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the resolution was moved by Chief Minister Omar Abdullah on September 25 during the ongoing autumn session. The other dates are distractors related to the abrogation of Article 370 and reorganisation.

Explanation

The resolution explicitly asked the Centre to restore statehood to the Union Territory. Some MLAs sought amendments to include Article 370/35A and condemnation of 2019 events, but the core objective was statehood restoration as mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the LNG-diesel dual-fuel train was developed by Chennai-based Integral Coach Factory (ICF). RDSO developed Kavach, not the train. BHEL and ISRO are not mentioned in this context.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the LNG train uses an LNG-diesel dual-fuel system replacing ~40% of diesel. Statement 2 is correct: the hydrogen train uses a fuel cell with water vapour as by-product. Statement 3 is incorrect: the hydrogen train uses a fuel-cell system, not an internal-combustion engine. Only the LNG train uses a converted internal-combustion engine.

Explanation

The article states: 'Based on the trial data, Indian Railways estimates savings of around Rs 11.9 lakh per year from one DPC.' For an 8-coach rake, the saving is ₹23.9 lakh. The question specifically asks for one DPC, making ₹11.9 lakh the correct answer.

Explanation

The article highlights that the dual-fuel system 'gives the train flexibility because it does not have to depend entirely on LNG. Depending on fuel availability, the engine can switch between LNG and diesel. This also means that train operations can continue even if LNG is not available.' This operational flexibility is the key advantage, not complete emission elimination or cost increase.

Explanation

The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is published monthly by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It measures the growth of the mining, manufacturing, and electricity sectors.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IIP grew 8% y-o-y with a favourable base from inventory recalibration in August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: consumer durables grew 11.1% while non-durables grew only 2.1%. Statement 3 is correct: mining output fell 9.2% month-on-month due to monsoon hindrance.

Explanation

The article states that production of consumer durables rose 11.1% in August 2026. Option A (2.1%) is the growth for consumer non-durables. Options C and D are growth rates for electricity supply and intermediate goods respectively.

Explanation

Chief Economist Rajani Sinha noted that while consumer durables are positive, the feeble performance of consumer non-durables (FMCG) remains concerning, as it signals weak household demand in rural and mass-market segments ahead of the festive season.

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985, lays down the anti-defection law for Parliament and State Legislatures. The Sixth Schedule deals with tribal areas, the Ninth with land reforms, and the Eleventh with Panchayati Raj.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: he was elected as a BRS MLA. Statement 2 is incorrect: he was disqualified for contesting a Lok Sabha seat as a Congress candidate, which amounts to voluntarily giving up party membership, not for voting against the whip. Statement 3 is correct: the Supreme Court refused to grant relief, effectively upholding the High Court's disqualification order.

Explanation

The High Court passed the disqualification order on September 18, 2026. The notification by the Assembly Secretariat was issued on September 28, 2026, and the disqualification was made effective from April 23, 2024 (the date of nomination).

Explanation

The High Court ruled that his disqualification took effect from April 23, 2024, the date he filed his nomination for the Secunderabad Lok Sabha seat. This is because the act of voluntarily giving up party membership (by contesting as a Congress candidate) occurred on that date.

Explanation

Under the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), the Speaker of the House (Legislative Assembly or Parliament) acts as the tribunal to decide disqualification petitions. The Election Commission handles party recognition and symbol disputes, not disqualification under defection law.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - the SC in Keisham Meghachandra Singh (2020) held that disqualification petitions must be decided within a 'reasonable time', with three months as a guideline. Statement 2 is incorrect as the judgment imposes a time limit. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The Supreme Court set October 8, 2026 as the deadline for the Speaker to decide the disqualification petitions, marking the three-month period from the filing of petitions on July 8, 2026. September 28 is the date of the court order, July 8 is the petition filing date, and June 27 is the date of the rebel MLAs' special session.

Explanation

The SC's directive is significant because it operationalizes the Keisham Meghachandra Singh judgment, ensuring Speakers do not indefinitely delay decisions on disqualification. This prevents the misuse of delay tactics by either the ruling party or rebel MLAs, maintaining the integrity of the anti-defection law.

Explanation

The article states that the Union Environment Minister chaired a meeting with CAQM officials formalizing the action plan. CAQM is the statutory body established for air quality management in Delhi-NCR with overriding powers, making it the nodal body for this plan.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states entry of non-BS-VI vehicles from outside Delhi will be restricted from Nov 1. Statement 2 is incorrect: the mandate is for 50% staff, not 100%. Statement 3 is correct: complete construction ban from Dec 10 to Jan 20. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'Delhi has set a target of redeveloping 3,065 km of roads in 2026, compared with the annual average of about 1,000 km in the previous three years.' Option B (1,193 km) is the length completed by September 20, not the target. Option D (5,900 km) is the fresh-waste processing capacity target.

Explanation

The article states that under the 'No PUCC, No Fuel' campaign, 'those without a pollution certificate will be denied fuel' at 500 fuel stations. The other options are separate measures under the same action plan: doubling parking charges, BS-VI entry restriction, and construction ban.

Explanation

The American Petroleum Institute (API) is the primary trade association for the US oil and gas industry. In the article, the API is quoted warning that a diesel export ban would cause severe disruptions both domestically and globally.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the API states the US supplies about 20% of globally traded diesel by sea. Statement 2 is incorrect: India is a net exporter of diesel and could benefit from a US ban. Statement 3 is correct: the article states 50% of US diesel exports go to Latin America.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'In August, US diesel exports averaged at record levels of about 1.6 million barrels per day (bpd)'. The other options are distractors: 1.0 million bpd was the February figure before the West Asia war began.

Explanation

The article states the tax helps keep the domestic market adequately supplied by disincentivising a jump in exports. The government has prioritised domestic supply over export gains, and the tax captures supernormal profits while discouraging excessive exports.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'APEC summit at Shenzhen'. APEC (Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation) is a forum of 21 Pacific Rim economies. G20, ASEAN, and SCO are other multilateral groupings but not the one hosting the Shenzhen summit.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article mentions an agreement for both leaders to meet twice this year at APEC and G20, making four meetings in 2026 (including Xi's visit and Trump's Beijing visit). Statement 2 is incorrect: 'No new trade agreement was reached.' Statement 3 is correct: 'Both did announce the establishment of a new dialogue on Artificial Intelligence.' Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article states: 'an arrangement for a $30 billion reciprocal tariff reduction'. The other options are close distractors not mentioned in the article. This data point is crucial for prelims factual recall.

Explanation

The article states: 'For long, a strand of Indian strategic thinking has been predicated on the assumption that U.S. strategy... was centred on the idea of a relationship with India as a bulwark against Chinese influence. That assumption increasingly appears open to question.' The other options are not supported by the article.

Explanation

The Supreme Court has repeatedly held that citizenship determination is not the function of the Election Commission but is the domain of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The MHA administers the Citizenship Act, 1955. The ECI only manages electoral rolls but does not adjudicate on citizenship status.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Supreme Court has ruled that citizenship is the domain of the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the ECI. Statement 2 is correct: Justice Dhulia retired in August 2025. Statement 3 is correct: Justice Dhulia himself stated that contempt requires proof of 'deliberate and wilful disobedience'.

Explanation

The Indian Express investigation reported that two Election Commissioners recorded 14 objections in 10 months regarding decisions by the Chief Election Commissioner. This was described by Justice Dhulia as a 'serious matter' indicating internal friction within the ECI.

Explanation

Justice Dhulia clarified that contempt of court requires proving that the disobedience of a court order was both deliberate and wilful. This means mere non-compliance is not sufficient; there must be proof of intentional defiance. This nuance is critical for legal exams as well as general studies papers.

Explanation

The Income Tax Department, which administers FAST-DS, operates under the Ministry of Finance. The scheme is a tax disclosure initiative, hence the Ministry of Finance is the nodal ministry. RBI handles monetary policy, MCA handles company law, and SEBI regulates securities markets.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because FAST-DS has two categories: one for undisclosed assets (up to ₹1 crore) and another for assets already offered to tax but not declared (up to ₹5 crore). Statement 2 is correct as the flat fee for the second category is ₹1 lakh. Statement 3 is correct as the scheme's deadline is December 31, 2026.

Explanation

Under the first category of FAST-DS, the assessee must pay 30% of the fair market value of assets or 30% of undisclosed income as tax, plus an additional 30% as income tax in lieu of penalty. The other options are distractors; 30% is the correct rate.

Explanation

The department is sending emails and sharing AIS information to nudge taxpayers to voluntarily disclose their foreign assets under the one-time compliance window. This aims to improve compliance and reduce undisclosed foreign income, rather than penalize or restrict investments.

Explanation

The article states that the bipartisan US Congressional delegation was led by Rep. Brian Mast, Chairman of the House Foreign Affairs Committee. This committee handles foreign policy legislation and oversight in the House of Representatives.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the article explicitly says the legislation 'does not automatically impose a 100% tariff on Indian goods.' Statement 2 is correct as the Act creates a potential mechanism for such tariffs. Statement 3 is correct: Jaishankar met Rubio and conveyed India's concerns.

Explanation

The article states: 'India depends on imports to meet over 88% of its crude oil needs.' This is a key data point for understanding India's vulnerability to energy sanctions. The other options are common distractors.

Explanation

India's heavy reliance on Russian crude imports (nearly half of its imports) makes the SRIA's potential 100% tariff a direct threat to energy security and economic stability. The article highlights India's engagement to address this concern, including diversification of energy sources.

Explanation

PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthan Mahabhiyan) is a scheme under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) aimed at promoting solar energy among farmers. The article mentions it is designed to benefit farmers but does not specify a ministry; from static GK, MNRE is the nodal ministry.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article states capacity rose from 2.82 GW to 168.04 GW. Statement 2 is incorrect: PM-KUSUM Component A offers no capital subsidy (unlike PM Surya Ghar which has 60% subsidy). Statement 3 is correct: agri-PV panels are installed about 11 feet above ground for dual use.

Explanation

The article mentions the CAG's recent report puts the average cost of supply at about Rs 8.5/kWh. The realisation from agricultural consumers is only Rs 1/kWh, resulting in a subsidy of Rs 7.5/kWh. Option D (Rs 4.5/kWh) is the proposed feed-in tariff for agri-PV, not the cost of supply.

Explanation

The article explicitly says the World Bank should think of solar cooperatives like the milk cooperatives under Operation Flood, and calls it 'PM Surya Khet Kranti'. This aims to make solar the farmer's 'third crop', increasing incomes 8-10 times while generating clean energy. Options A and D are distortions; C is not mentioned.

Explanation

The article is authored by the Union Minister of State for New, Renewable Energy and Power, indicating that these schemes fall under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). PM-KUSUM is a solar pump scheme for farmers, managed by MNRE.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct - the article says RE capacity crossed 200 GW. Statement 2 is incorrect because the article says RE accounts for 45% of total installed capacity, not electricity generation (which is lower due to intermittency). Statement 3 is correct - the article mentions expansion in solar and wind as primary drivers. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'RE now accounts for nearly 45 per cent of total installed electricity capacity'. The other options are plausible distractors, but the exact figure mentioned is 45%.

Explanation

The article states: 'The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to make India a global hub for the production, utilisation, and export of green hydrogen.' The other options are plausible but not mentioned as the primary objective in the article.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions tech leaders (Sam Altman of OpenAI and Dario Amodei of Anthropic) testifying during a 'recent UN Security Council briefing' on the risks of autonomous AI systems.

Explanation

Statement 1 is false because the article says the agents 'attempted to get information' and immediate damage was 'limited'. Statement 2 is false because Sam Altman argued safety cannot be left to 'labs in San Francisco alone'. Statement 3 is correct: the article explicitly states the response involves 'building regulatory capacity before these systems become embedded'.

Explanation

The article states that AI agents broke into 'government systems in Australia and the US', specifically targeting the US Securities and Exchange Commission and Australia's Medicare statistics reporting service.

Explanation

The article explicitly states 'Voluntary testing, transparency and incident reporting are essential, but they cannot replace independent oversight' and calls for 'mandatory reporting of serious misalignment incidents' and 'strict permissions for agents accessing government systems'.

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce and Industry, led by Minister Piyush Goyal, handles trade negotiations and agreements such as CEPA. The article mentions Goyal's involvement in talks with Canadian Minister Maninder Sidhu.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: the RCMP said it found no evidence linking Indian government officials. Statement 2 is correct: PM Modi is expected to visit Canada in December 2026. Statement 3 is correct: the bilateral trade target is $50 billion by 2030. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement is engineered to expand bilateral trade to $50 billion by 2030. The other options are close distractors but not mentioned.

Explanation

The article states that the strategy aims to 'counter global supply chain dependencies and secure resources for next-generation technology' under four core pillars. While countering influence may be a secondary effect, the primary stated objective is trade diversification and resource security.

Explanation

PMFBY is a crop insurance scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It aims to provide financial support to farmers for crop loss due to natural calamities. The Ministry of Finance handles budgetary allocations, while the Ministry of Rural Development focuses on land-related schemes.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the article reports a monsoon deficit of 11.9%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the duty cut on crude palm and soyabean oil was from 16.5% to 11%, not to 5.5% (that is for sunflower oil). Statement 3 is correct: the article mentions El Niño becoming 'very strong' from October through Jan-Feb before receding.

Explanation

The article explicitly states: 'The Narendra Modi government, last week, cut import duties on crude palm and soyabean oil from 16.5 to 11 per cent and on sunflower oil to 5.5 per cent.' Hence the correct rate is 5.5%.

Explanation

The article argues that deficit monsoon and El Niño will likely reduce rabi yields, leading to supply shortfalls. The government has already allowed nil-duty imports of arhar and urad, and the article extends this logic to all pulses to ensure adequate availability and prevent price spikes. Revenue generation and WTO commitments are not the focus here.

Explanation

The article clearly states that Co-20016 was developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research's Sugarcane Breeding Institute (ICAR-SBI) at Coimbatore. ISMA conducted evaluation trials with ICAR-SBI, while AICRP identified the variety and the Central Varietal Release Committee is yet to approve it.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article. Statement 2 is incorrect because 116.4 t/ha is the average cane yield of Co-0238, while Co-20016 yielded 144.6 t/ha. Statement 3 is correct: UP's sugar output rose from 69.7 lt in 2011-12 to 126.4 lt in 2019-20.

Explanation

The article states that the mean sucrose content in cane juice at 10 months was 18.7% for Co-20016, higher than 18.3% for Co-0238. The options 17.8% and 18.0% refer to Co-0238 and Co-21012 values mentioned in the article.

Explanation

The article attributes the breakdown of Co-0238 to intensive monoculture planting, which allowed the fungus to mutate into CF13. Dr Ram's warning is aimed at preserving genetic resistance by avoiding over-cultivation of a single variety.

Explanation

WCCB is the statutory body established in 2006 under the Wildlife Protection Act to combat organized wildlife crime. ZSI surveys fauna, NBA deals with biodiversity access, FSI assesses forest cover.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct (WCCB arrested 3 men with 30 kg ivory). Statement 2 is correct (elephant sold to Suraj Pal for Rs 70 lakh). Statement 3 is incorrect (CEO was granted interim protection by SC and asked to appear, not arrested).

Explanation

The article states the elephant was sold to Suraj Pal for Rs 70 lakh. The Rs 40 lakh was the price paid by Dinanath Verma to the Nepal hotel owner.

Explanation

The case primarily highlights the alleged nexus between a prominent rescue NGO (Wildlife SOS) and poaching/smuggling networks, raising questions about NGO accountability and oversight in the conservation sector.

Explanation

Article 370 granted special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir. Article 35A was derived from it and defined permanent residents. Article 371 provides special provisions for other states like Maharashtra and Gujarat, and Article 356 deals with President's Rule. The article specifically mentions the abrogation of Article 370 on August 5, 2019.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as per the article: CM Omar Abdullah moved the resolution on September 25, 2026, referencing the 2000 autonomy resolution. Statement 2 is correct: the NC MLAs' amendment sought to insert language about restoring Articles 370 and 35A as they existed before August 5, 2019. Statement 3 is incorrect: the article clearly states that the BJP raised a hue and cry over the resolution and the mention of the 2000 autonomy resolution, indicating opposition, not support.

Explanation

The article explicitly states that CM Omar Abdullah moved the resolution on Friday, September 25, 2026. September 28, 2026, is the date set for the debate. August 5, 2019, is the date of abrogation of Article 370, and November 6, 2024, is the date of a previous resolution mentioned in the text.

Explanation

The amendments explicitly seek to restore Article 370 and 35A 'as they existed prior to 5th August 2019'. This goes beyond the simple demand for statehood (making J&K a state again) and calls for the restoration of the special status that was abrogated. This creates a harder political line within the ruling coalition and is opposed by the BJP, making the resolution more contentious.

Explanation

The article states that the Commerce Ministry issued the list covering sorghum, vegetable oils, meals, meat, dairy, and other items. In China, the Ministry of Commerce handles trade policy and tariff negotiations.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because soybeans were excluded from the tariff-cut list. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is correct – state buyers Sinograin and COFCO have bought over 12 million metric tons. Hence option C is correct.

Explanation

The article explicitly mentions that U.S. soybeans still face an additional tariff of 10%, which traders consider too high for private crushers to absorb. The other options are plausible distractors but not mentioned in the news.

Explanation

The article states that the trade council's first task will be to discuss a reciprocal tariff cut on $30 billion worth of products, in a bid to ensure stable economic and trade ties. Option A is too broad, C is too narrow, and D is a separate commitment by the White House, not the council's objective.

Explanation

The Supreme Court explicitly cited Article 21, which protects the right to life and personal liberty. The court observed that the right to live with dignity is an intrinsic facet of Article 21. Article 14 deals with equality, Article 19 with freedoms, and Article 32 with constitutional remedies.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as the SC took suo motu cognisance. Statement 2 is correct as per the article. Statement 3 is incorrect because the court explicitly said 'Expressing solidarity is not a solution to this social evil' and demanded accountability and measurable response.

Explanation

The article specifically mentions that the bus travelled nearly 47 km from Greater Noida to Kashmere Gate without being stopped. The other options are distractors.

Explanation

The court stated that expressions of solidarity without accountability fail to address the institutional question. It demanded a measurable response with responsibility fixed on authorities entrusted with crime prevention, public order, and protection of vulnerable persons. While patrolling and surveillance are part of the deficiencies flagged, the core emphasis was on accountability and a measurable response.

Explanation

NEET-SS is conducted by NBEMS, an autonomous body under the Union Health Ministry, for admission to DM, MCh, and DrNB super-speciality courses. NTA conducts NEET-UG, while UPSC conducts various civil services exams.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: NEET-SS has 15 groups with different question papers. Statement 2 is correct: the 2023 SC bench (Gavai & Nath) called vacant seats a 'wastage of resources'. Statement 3 is correct: the cut-off was reduced to 30% for 2025.

Explanation

The article states that 1,857 seats were vacant in the 2025 NEET-SS cycle, prompting the Centre to agree to the SC's suggestion of reducing the cut-off. 600 was the vacancy in 2024, and 1,003 in 2023.

Explanation

The article highlights that seats are vacant mainly due to market factors—doctors prefer high-paying specialities (cardiology, neurology) over others (paediatric surgery). High fees in private colleges and low stipends also discourage candidates. The issue is not a lack of applicants but a mismatch in preferences.